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SignUp Now!Jesus also said "NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD AT ANY TIME; THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON, WHICH IS IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER, HE HATH DECLARED HIM."
I believe your missing the interpretation of what he's actually saying. My Father that is IN ME he doeth the works and if you have seen me whom the Father resides in then you have seen the works of the Father, therefore you have witnessed the Father working.
I have declared thy NAME and will declare it again. What does this mean as the Jews knew the name of God? Could it be that what he was declaring
was the NATURE OF GOD? If you hear someones name how many different things about that person automatically run through your head? And is that number added to as someone updates your information about that person? Same with Jesus, He declared the nature of God.
And he did say I will declare THY name he didn't say I will declare my own name.
Which verse are you referring to?
Hi Dave, no one has seen the Father.
With Love Wnl
John 1:18 and 1st John 4:12 1:18 "No man hath seen God; at any time, the only BEGOTTEN SON, which is in the bosom of THE FATHER, he hath declared him." (Jesus' words Red and white letters.) about 65-70 years prior to the next verse.
1st John 4:12 " NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us."
Side note, the latter 1st John 4:12 was not penned until nearly the end of the first century AD. So if Jesus was GOD then John in this very verse would have lied.
Also note 1st John 4:15 "Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God." So what does that tell us about those that say he was not the Son of God?
How can you reconcile these verses with what you have quoted? Just asking for you to make an effort. We both know there is no contradiction in the Bible so all verses must be reconciled to form a true picture of sound doctrine. We cannot pick and choose and especially take verses that are absolutely irrefutable as to what is said, and make up a story contradictory to those verses. If we have to make assumptions in translation in order to get where you need to go then there is a big problem because the assumption leads us away from the plainly stated truth.John 1:18 and 1st John 4:12 1:18 "No man hath seen God; at any time, the only BEGOTTEN SON, which is in the bosom of THE FATHER, he hath declared him." (Jesus' words Red and white letters.) about 65-70 years prior to the next verse.
1st John 4:12 " NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us."
Side note, the latter 1st John 4:12 was not penned until nearly the end of the first century AD. So if Jesus was GOD then John in this very verse would have lied.
Also note 1st John 4:15 "Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God." So what does that tell us about those that say he was not the Son of God?
My only answer is that as he was living under the mosaic law until his death he had to abide by that Law. I am not in the least a scholar in mosaic law.Why did Jesus not spend more time with the gentiles.
It is recorded He talked with the Canaanite woman, the soldier who's son would die but Jesus said to him, he will live. I can't think of any other recorded meeting.
It seems He tried to avoid them. They came to Him.
Joh 12:44 Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me.
Joh 12:45 And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me.
The problem was very very few people "saw" Jesus for who he was as he alone is the one who reveals the Father!
Joh 14:8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
Joh 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
Thats all great Dave but you didn't directly answer a single question I asked. Try them one at a time, to throw half the bible at someone doesn't do much good if we interpret differently. Lets back up and start with the first question.
If Jesus were GOD in the flesh then why did he need to OVERCOME THE WORLD?
Really, God cannot die. Kills that theory. And since Jesus was born under the Law he had to remain sinless as a man to fulfill the Law, too easy for God to do it himself, then he could nail it's punishments to his cross. It was a man that brought in the condemnation decree and it was a man that had to be the redeemer of man. The Mosaic Law was a marriage contract between Israel and God to bring forth spiritual sons if anyone could fulfill the requirements, only one as a man, part of the requirement, did and that was
his only begotten son Jesus.
As to the second question why did he need to be baptized with the Spirit of God if he was God already?