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God declares Jesus God

Jesus also said "NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD AT ANY TIME; THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON, WHICH IS IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER, HE HATH DECLARED HIM."

I believe your missing the interpretation of what he's actually saying. My Father that is IN ME he doeth the works and if you have seen me whom the Father resides in then you have seen the works of the Father, therefore you have witnessed the Father working.

I have declared thy NAME and will declare it again. What does this mean as the Jews knew the name of God? Could it be that what he was declaring
was the NATURE OF GOD? If you hear someones name how many different things about that person automatically run through your head? And is that number added to as someone updates your information about that person? Same with Jesus, He declared the nature of God.

And he did say I will declare THY name he didn't say I will declare my own name.
 
I believe that verse is talking about the trinity.

Here's the full verse:

John 14:9 (NLT) "Jesus replied, "Have I been with you all this time, Philip, and yet you still don’t know who I am? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father! So why are you asking me to show him to you?"
 
Jesus also said "NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD AT ANY TIME; THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON, WHICH IS IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER, HE HATH DECLARED HIM."

I believe your missing the interpretation of what he's actually saying. My Father that is IN ME he doeth the works and if you have seen me whom the Father resides in then you have seen the works of the Father, therefore you have witnessed the Father working.

I have declared thy NAME and will declare it again. What does this mean as the Jews knew the name of God? Could it be that what he was declaring
was the NATURE OF GOD? If you hear someones name how many different things about that person automatically run through your head? And is that number added to as someone updates your information about that person? Same with Jesus, He declared the nature of God.

And he did say I will declare THY name he didn't say I will declare my own name.

Which verse are you referring to?
 
Which verse are you referring to?

John 1:18 and 1st John 4:12 1:18 "No man hath seen God; at any time, the only BEGOTTEN SON, which is in the bosom of THE FATHER, he hath declared him." (Jesus' words Red and white letters.) about 65-70 years prior to the next verse.

1st John 4:12 " NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us."

Side note, the latter 1st John 4:12 was not penned until nearly the end of the first century AD. So if Jesus was GOD then John in this very verse would have lied.

Also note 1st John 4:15 "Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God." So what does that tell us about those that say he was not the Son of God?
 
John 1:18 and 1st John 4:12 1:18 "No man hath seen God; at any time, the only BEGOTTEN SON, which is in the bosom of THE FATHER, he hath declared him." (Jesus' words Red and white letters.) about 65-70 years prior to the next verse.

1st John 4:12 " NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us."

Side note, the latter 1st John 4:12 was not penned until nearly the end of the first century AD. So if Jesus was GOD then John in this very verse would have lied.

Also note 1st John 4:15 "Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God." So what does that tell us about those that say he was not the Son of God?


To Dave,

Please read and please do not skip the last line.
 
Joh 12:44 Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me.
Joh 12:45 And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me.

The problem was very very few people "saw" Jesus for who he was as he alone is the one who reveals the Father!

Joh 14:8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
Joh 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
 
Why did Jesus not spend more time with the gentiles.

It is recorded He talked with the Canaanite woman, the soldier who's son would die but Jesus said to him, he will live. I can't think of any other recorded meeting.

It seems He tried to avoid them. They came to Him.
 
John 1:18 and 1st John 4:12 1:18 "No man hath seen God; at any time, the only BEGOTTEN SON, which is in the bosom of THE FATHER, he hath declared him." (Jesus' words Red and white letters.) about 65-70 years prior to the next verse.

1st John 4:12 " NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us."

Side note, the latter 1st John 4:12 was not penned until nearly the end of the first century AD. So if Jesus was GOD then John in this very verse would have lied.

Also note 1st John 4:15 "Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God." So what does that tell us about those that say he was not the Son of God?
How can you reconcile these verses with what you have quoted? Just asking for you to make an effort. We both know there is no contradiction in the Bible so all verses must be reconciled to form a true picture of sound doctrine. We cannot pick and choose and especially take verses that are absolutely irrefutable as to what is said, and make up a story contradictory to those verses. If we have to make assumptions in translation in order to get where you need to go then there is a big problem because the assumption leads us away from the plainly stated truth.

1st John 5:1 "Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat(Fathered) loveth him also that is begotten of him (Son)." God did not begat himself, he begat a son that he sacrificed for our sins. The last Adam.
 
Why did Jesus not spend more time with the gentiles.

It is recorded He talked with the Canaanite woman, the soldier who's son would die but Jesus said to him, he will live. I can't think of any other recorded meeting.

It seems He tried to avoid them. They came to Him.
My only answer is that as he was living under the mosaic law until his death he had to abide by that Law. I am not in the least a scholar in mosaic law.
But from what I know about violating law being an act of sin it seems logical that he would avoid them as it was in the law to do so.
 
Joh 12:44 Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me.
Joh 12:45 And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me.

The problem was very very few people "saw" Jesus for who he was as he alone is the one who reveals the Father!

Joh 14:8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
Joh 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?


My earlier post was directed to Curtis.
Sorry for any confusion
 
Revelation 3:21 "To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I OVERCAME and am set down WITH MY FATHER in his throne."
Can anybody reconcile this verse with Trinity doctrine? I see that Jesus needed to overcome because he did overcome in order to sit down WITH HIS FATHER in his Fathers throne. As he tells us we are to receive the same reward for overcoming as he did. I see Jesus and his Father sitting together in the throne chair of God (2 entities).
If Jesus were God then why did he need to OVERCOME THE WORLD, which he created?
 
And one more question for verse reconciliation.

John 1:33 "And I knew him not: but he who sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he that baptizes with the Holy Ghost."
John 1:32 " And John bare record, saying I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him."

We know that the body without the spirit is dead. So if Jesus was alive then he had a spirit within him that was his. So my question would be why did he need the Spirit of God to descend upon him and remain if he was GOD already?

Were told in Matthew 3:16 that when this happened "....the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit Of GOD descending like a dove and lighting upon him."
For clarification of what Spirit.

Just to be clear the Spirit that resided in Jesus before his baptism was not the Spirit of God as it did Not indwell him until his baptism at Jordan as quoted by scripture above.

My next question would be simple I think. When did Jesus begin to baptize with the Holy Ghost? Was it prior to his death or after his resurrection and glorification?

So did he have the ability to baptize in the Holy Ghost before he received the Spirit of God?
 

The Bible directly states that Jesus is God in a number of passages.1 Taken by themselves, these verses provide enough evidence for the church to believe in and teach the deity of Jesus Christ. But the indirect evidence of Scripture is equally compelling.

The names of God are often applied to Jesus. He is called "the Mighty God, the Everlasting Father" and "Immanuel" (meaning "God with us").2 Elsewhere Jesus is called "The Lord (Jehovah) our Righteousness," "God" and "Son of God."3

The Bible ascribes the characteristics of deity to Jesus Christ. He is described as eternal, omnipresent, omniscient, omnipotent and immutable.4

Jesus Christ is equal with God the Father. He is worshiped as God.5 His name is assigned equal standing with God the Father in the church's baptismal formula and in the apostolic benediction.6

Christ performed works which only God can do. He is creator.7 He is the upholder of all things.8 He forgives sin.9 He will raise the dead and execute judgment.10

Jesus Christ Himself claimed deity. He taught His disciples to pray in His name.11 He claimed that He and the Father were one and that He was the Son of God.12 He claimed that to know Him was to know God, to see Him was to see God, to receive Him was to receive God, to believe Him was to believe in God and to honor Him was to honor God, while to hate Him was to hate God.13

1 John 1:1, 20:28; Romans 9:5; Phil. 2:6; Titus 2:13, Hebrews 1:8; 1 John 5:20. Other passages include John 13:3, 17:5, Colossians 1:15–19, 1 Timothy 3:16, and Hebrews 1:3

2 Isaiah 9:6; Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:22–23

3 Jeremiah 23:6; Isaiah 40:3; Hebrews 1:8; 1 Timothy 3:16; John 10:36

4 Eternal (Isaiah 9:6; Micah 5:2; John 1:1–2; 8:58; 17:5; 24; Colossians 1:15, 17; 1 John 1:1; Revelation 1:8); omnipresent (Matthew 18:20; 28:20; John 3:13); omniscient (John 2:24, 25; 16:30; 21:17; Revelation 2:23); omnipotent (Isaiah 9:6; Philippians 3:21; Revelation 1:8; cf. John 5:17; Hebrews 1:3; Matthew 28:18) and immutable (Hebrews 1:10–12; 13:8)

5 John 20:28; Acts 7:59; Hebrews 1:6; cf. Exodus 34:14 and Matthew 4:10

6 Matthew 28:19; cf. Acts 2:38; 2 Corinthians 13:14; cf. 1 Corinthians 1:3, Ephesians 1:2

7 John 1:3, 10; Colossians 1:16; Hebrews 1:2,10

8 Colossians 1:17; Hebrews 1:3; cf. Luke 10:22; John 3:35; 17:2; Ephesians 1:22

9 Matthew 9:2–7; cf. Mark 2:7; Luke 7:47, 48; Colossians 3:13

10 John 11:25; cf. John 5:25, 28–29; 6:39, 40, 54; John 5:22

11 John 16:23, 24

12 John 10:30, 36; 14:9; 17:11

13 John 8:18; 14:7; John 12:45; 14:9; Mark 9:37; John 12:44; 14:1; John 5:23; John 15:23
 
Thats all great Dave but you didn't directly answer a single question I asked. Try them one at a time, to throw half the bible at someone doesn't do much good if we interpret differently. Lets back up and start with the first question.

If Jesus were GOD in the flesh then why did he need to OVERCOME THE WORLD?
 
Thats all great Dave but you didn't directly answer a single question I asked. Try them one at a time, to throw half the bible at someone doesn't do much good if we interpret differently. Lets back up and start with the first question.

If Jesus were GOD in the flesh then why did he need to OVERCOME THE WORLD?

he was God and man at the same time, only God could die for the sins of the world. no man could die for the sins of the world and be a sufficient sacrifice. Understanding he was both God and man at the same time is difficult to understand, and really does not make sense to the human brain I understand that. the best thing to do is fast on it and pray on it.
 
Really, God cannot die. Kills that theory. And since Jesus was born under the Law he had to remain sinless as a man to fulfill the Law, too easy for God to do it himself, then he could nail it's punishments to his cross. It was a man that brought in the condemnation decree and it was a man that had to be the redeemer of man. The Mosaic Law was a marriage contract between Israel and God to bring forth spiritual sons if anyone could fulfill the requirements, only one as a man, part of the requirement, did and that was
his only begotten son Jesus.

As to the second question why did he need to be baptized with the Spirit of God if he was God already?
 
Really, God cannot die. Kills that theory. And since Jesus was born under the Law he had to remain sinless as a man to fulfill the Law, too easy for God to do it himself, then he could nail it's punishments to his cross. It was a man that brought in the condemnation decree and it was a man that had to be the redeemer of man. The Mosaic Law was a marriage contract between Israel and God to bring forth spiritual sons if anyone could fulfill the requirements, only one as a man, part of the requirement, did and that was
his only begotten son Jesus.

As to the second question why did he need to be baptized with the Spirit of God if he was God already?


he did not die he rose on the third day and conquered death,,, can any human do that???? :)

he was baptized to set a example for us to follow

hope this helps you, i
 
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