You provided only your words "
Foreknowledge refers to knowing in advance who would freely choose to believe" without any supporting documentation; in fact, your definition is false because
foreknowledge means "to know beforehand, i.e. foresee" (
Strong's 4268 on BibleHub.com from
Strong's Greek: 4267. προγινώσκω (proginóskó) on BibleHub.com) also relevant is the definition "Knowledge or awareness of something before its existence or occurrence" (
The Free Dictionary foreknowledge definition). You added a non-existent definition appendage to
foreknowledge of "
who would freely choose to believe", so your definition is not honest.
You publicly issued your "
Like" of
@B-A-C's opening statement for his opening post to this thread of "
An honest discussion on free-will" (proof
post #27), yet both of you have been dishonest.
Let's review the passage which contains mention of both God's
foreknowledge and God's
predestination.
Holy Spirit inspired Apostle Paul wrote:
for those whom He foreknew and predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers,
But, this is part of a greater passage, so here is Holy Spirit inspired Apostle Paul's comprehensive topic:
And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose, for those whom He foreknew and predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers, those, whom then He predestined, and these He called, and, whom He called, these also He justified. Whom, then, He justified, these also He glorified.
Your "
Predestination is not arbitrary" clause is true, but your "
it’s based on God seeing who would accept His grace" clause is untrue. No Holy Spirit inspired Scripture states that "
Predestination is" "
based on God seeing who would accept His grace".
A true statement is "predestination is a person being conformed to the image of Christ".
Another true statement is "God predestines a person to believe in God's Grace". Oh the unearned love that the Father has for us who believe in Christ! Praise Jesus!!!
Perhaps
@Curtis will have something to write about this, but I observe that you discredit the value of 2-3 scriptures in addition to introducing free-will where free will does not exist in 13 scriptures.
God’s good pleasure is the core of the matter regarding God's desire in "
This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth" (
1 Timothy 2:3-4) because the Holy Spirit makes clear "
it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure" (
Philippians 2:13).
A free-will of man is absent from
1 Timothy 2:3-4, so you aren't being honest.
A first result of you injecting free-will in
1 Timothy 2:3-4 is:
- God desires Martin to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Martin free-will chooses to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
- God desires Lisa to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Lisa never free-will chooses to be saved nor to come to the knowledge of the truth.
- Conclusion: the desire of God is so miserably pathetically incapably weak that people like Lisa go to hell thus overcoming and overriding God's desire according to your Free-willian Philosophy.
So your free-will failure point respecting
1 Timothy 2:4 is that man decimates God's desires and man exalts man.
A second result of you injecting free-will in
1 Timothy 2:3-4 is:
- God desires Jane to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Jane free-will chooses to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
- God desires Jack to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Jack never free-will chooses to be saved nor to come to the knowledge of the truth.
- Conclusion: Jack is saved because God desires Jack to be saved despite Jack never free-will choosing to be saved according to your Free-willian Philosophy.
So your free-will failure point respecting
1 Timothy 2:4 is that the absence of man's free-will results in all men universally being saved without condition of belief.
The Lord God Almighty's desires are always satisfied! Praise be to God!!!
Holy Spirit inspired Apostle Peter wrote this letter (epistle) specifically
to those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ (
2 Peter 1:1); therefore, the "
you", "
any", and "
all" inside of "
The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance"
(
2 Peter 3:9) applies exclusively to current believers in Christ and/or future believers in Christ until the day of Christ.
A free-will of man is absent from
2 Peter 3:9, so you aren't being honest.
Holy Spirit inspired Prophet Ezekiel wrote more than "
Say to them, ‘As I live!’ declares the Lord GOD, ‘I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn back, turn back from your evil ways! Why then will you die, O house of Israel?’"
(
Ezekiel 33:11) which you even truncated at the word "
live" thus you eliminated "
Turn back, turn back from your evil ways! Why then will you die, O house of Israel?’" in which God doesn't ask "why then will you live". When
Ezekiel 33:1-20 is read in context, then God describes watchmen, reward, and punishment as well as evil man's self-willed (
2 Peter 2:9-10) drive to destruction and crucially Sovereign God's justice "
Yet you say, ‘The way of the Lord is not right.’ O house of Israel, I will judge each of you according to his ways" (
Ezekiel 33:20).
A free-will of man is absent from
Ezekiel 33:11, so you aren't being honest.
Holy Spirit inspired Prophet Isaiah wrote "
So will My word be which goes forth from My mouth; It will not return to Me empty, Without accomplishing what I desire, And without succeeding in the matter for which I sent it"
(
Isaiah 55:11) in which the Word of God clearly indicates "
it does not depend on the man who wills or the man who runs, but on God who has mercy" (
Romans 9:16) and "
He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires" (
Romans 9:18).
A free-will of man is absent from
Isaiah 55:11, so you aren't being honest.
P.S. your citation does not match the corresponding text; nonetheless, the command recorded in
Isaiah 55:1 does not convey free-will ability to choose toward God.
Lord Jesus says "
For many are called, but few are chosen" (
Matthew 22:14), and Christ provides an example of one not chosen to be covered by the Blood of Christ with "
But when the king came in to look over the dinner guests, he saw a man there who was not dressed in wedding clothes, and he said to him, ‘Friend, how did you come in here without wedding clothes?’ And the man was speechless. Then the king said to the servants, ‘Bind him hand and foot, and throw him into the outer darkness; in that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’" (
Matthew 22:11-13).
A free-will of man is absent from
Matthew 22:14, so you aren't being honest
and you implicitly added free-will to the Word of God.
The wonderful Word of God "
And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself" (
John 12:32), and
it is written, “As I live, says the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.” (
Romans 14:11).
When Christ says
I will draw, then we Christians hear Him saying that He does the work with no mention of us doing anything. We think of "drawing water from a well".
A free-will of man is absent from
John 12:32, so you aren't being honest
and you implicitly added free-will to the Word of God.
Many of the concepts expressed throughout this response to you are interchangeable, so what is said about one passage may also be said about another passage of similar concept.
The hearing ear, and the seeing eye, Yahweh has made even both of them (
Proverbs 20:12), and this applies to
The Spirit and the bride say, “Come.” And let the one who hears say, “Come.” And let the one who is thirsty come; let the one who wishes take the water of life without cost (
Revelation 22:17).
A free-will of man is absent from
Revelation 22:17, so you aren't being honest
and you implicitly added free-will to the Word of God.
I do enjoy this blessed writing of John the Apostle "
He Himself is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world" (
1 John 2:2).
@KingJ, do you believe that you are always a part of
the whole world wherever Holy Spirit inspired John wrote
the whole world?
Beware how you answer because John wrote in the same book "
the whole world lies in the evil one" (
1 John 5:19) in the same book as
1 John 2:2.
The Apostle John further wrote "
you have overcome the evil one" (
1 John 2:13) in the same book as
1 John 2:2, and John uses the "
you" to refer to us Christians exclusively; therefore, no Christian lies in the evil one.
A free-will of man is absent from
1 John 2:2, so you aren't being honest.
WOW, you omitted the Sovereignty of God explained in the beginning of verse 14 in what appears to be a deliberate attempt to exalt man above God, so here is the passage "
For the love of Christ controls us, having concluded this, that one died for all, therefore all died; and He died for all, so that they who live might no longer live for themselves, but for Him who died and rose again on their behalf" (
2 Corinthians 5:14-15).
Dead men raised by God unto man alive in Christ are distinctly identified, but free-will for man does not exist in the passage which you quoted as support for unscriptural free-will.
A free-will of man is absent from
2 Corinthians 5:14-15, so you aren't being honest.
The implication of your "Predestination is" "based on God seeing who would accept His grace" free-will folly is on the left side while the righteous revelation of the Holy Spirit is on the right side:
Free-willian Philosophy | | Holy Scripture |
| | |
so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone who free-will chooses the grace of God
(KingJ 2:9). | | But we do see Him who was made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone. For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author of their salvation through sufferings. For both He who sanctifies and those who are sanctified are all from one Father; for which reason He is not ashamed to call them brethren
(Hebrews 2:9-11). |
WOW, WOW, you omitted the Sovereignty of God in a manner like you did with 2 Corinthians 5:14-15.
A free-will of man is absent from Hebrews 2:9, so you aren't being honest.
Christ's Use Of The Word "World" In John 3:16 (John 3:14-16)
The first word of
John 3:16 is a conjunction that inextricably ties
John 3:14-15 to
John 3:16, and here are the Lord Jesus' words as recorded by the Apostle John:
"As Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up; so that every believing will in Him have eternal life, for God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that every believing in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life
"
Lord Jesus brings in history by way of mentioning "
the serpent in the wilderness"
John 3:14), so here is the contextually linked passage about history:
Then YHWH said to Moses, "Make a fiery [serpent], and set it on a standard; and it shall come about, that everyone who is bitten, when he looks at it, he will live." And Moses made a bronze serpent and set it on the standard; and it came about, that if a serpent bit any man, when he looked to the bronze serpent, he lived. (
Numbers 21:8-9).
Based on God's command about "
the serpent in the wilderness" (
John 3:14) and the results of the "
bronze serpent" that Moses set on the standard (
Numbers 21:9), the population of persons that certainly were affected by God's command about "the serpent in the wilderness" in order to live were ONLY each bitten person that looked at "
the serpent in the wilderness".
Furthermore, there is a different population of persons which includes persons that DID NOT LOOK AT "the serpent in the wilderness".
Therefore, there are separate populations of persons identified in Jesus' words as recorded by the Apostle John (
John 3:14-16) with the first "population of bitten look to live" and there was the second "population of everyone else".
In the next four paragraphs, we see the Word of God speaking to Moses (
Numbers 21:8) in relation to the Word of God speaking to Nicodemus (
John 3:16).
- Notice how "everyone who is bitten" (Numbers 21:8) relates to "world" (John 3:16).
- Notice how "when he" (Numbers 21:8) relates to "that every one" (John 3:16, note that the singular (not plural) Greek word pas [Strong's 3956] translates accurately as "every one" not so much as the unfettered promiscuous connotation of "whosoever" [KJV] or "whoever" [NASB]).
- Notice how "look" (Numbers 21:8) relates to "believing" (John 3:16).
- Notice how "live" (Numbers 21:8) relates to "eternal life" (John 3:16).
Jesus sets the relation between differing populations of persons by way of Him including "
the serpent in the wilderness" (
John 3:14,
Numbers 21:9), so the "population of bitten look to live" directly corresponds with the word "
world" as per Jesus' usage (
John 3:16).
The Word of God conclusively proves that the context establishes the word "
world" as used by Jesus in
John 3:16 includes ONLY the population of persons that currently believe in Jesus or will in the future believe in Jesus.
A free-will of man is absent from
John 3:16, so you aren't being honest.
The Apostle Paul predicates
everyone who calls (
Romans 10:13) on such people
believing (see
Romans 10:11 and
Romans 10:14), and the Word of God makes abundantly clear “
This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent” (
John 6:29), so Lord Jesus Christ lovingly causes us Christians to call on the name of the Lord!
A free-will of man is absent from
Romans 10:13, so you aren't being honest.
A command does not convey ability.
A person's successful completion of the command shows fruit of the Holy Spirit (
Galatians 5:22-23); in contrast, a person's failure to execute the command shows a work of the flesh (
Galatians 5:19-21).
The Word of God reveals that repentance within people is controlled by God with “
I praise You, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that You have hidden these things from the wise and intelligent and have revealed them to babes” (
Matthew 11:25).
A free-will of man is absent from
Acts 17:30, so you aren't being honest.
The Sovereign God picked specific individuals to save from the wrath of God based upon God’s love of each and every one of God's chosen people for "
he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and without defect before him in love" (
Ephesians 1:4) - every person who is part of the
us and
we is individually chosen by the Holy Lord God Almighty!
Love,
Kermos