I don't want anything I say, to make people think that they don't have to obey Jesus. We have to obey the things that He taught. So, if something I have said makes anyone think they that don't have to obey Jesus, then throw it out. Because we do have to obey what he taught.Hello Brothers,
Just a little curious on your positions.
So context, including the chronology of Scripture is necessary to make a determination on singular verses? Yes/No
If so, does this include the Epistles and other Books, which followed the Gospels in making such a determination?
I'm asking this because I'm truly trying to tie down the theology of or should I say the doctrine of money that is the preface for part of this thread directing us to complete obedience.
If my understanding/extrapolating in combining what both of you have said individually is, if verses were used while Jesus' Earthly Ministry was directed specifically to the Nation of Israeli, and only after His Resurrection would they then apply to those who have come to believe, both Jew & Gentile. Would it then have affect as to what must apply to all believers as being a sign of obedience?
Side Note: Is, the meaning of "mammon" depending upon the time since it's inception into the English Language, a consideration, and/or do we hold to the Greek language and usage within the context of Scripture reference?
With the Love of Christ Jesus.