I am writing an ebook (which I plan to give away freely) on head coverings and have tentatively arrived at a number of conclusions.
One of those being that the church as a whole, especially in Western nations, is WAY off in it's own conclusions on what Paul said. So much so that I sometimes wonder if rebellion in the church runs much deeper than I have previously thought.
But for purposes of this thread I am particularly interested in getting input on the following statement that represents one conclusion I have tentatively come to.
Please make sure you read this entire post before anyone gets to jumping all over me regarding my tentative conclusion. Please note in particular the number of times I have bolded the word tentative meaning that my statement of conclusion below is...well...tentative such that I am open and very desirous of hearing how it may not represent truth by God on this matter.
The one thing I do not want to do under any circumstances is publish a book with a conclusion that is faulty by the Lord.
Let me briefly explain why I have tentatively concluded the above.
Paul gave a number of reasons to support what he taught about head coverings. ALL his reasons are culturally neutral. Meaning that his reasons apply to all time and in all places due to being rooted in things like the creation order and other such things.
NONE of Paul's reasons for the practice of head coverings are connected with the culture in Corinth or any other New Testament culture at all.
Note that I said NONE.
New Testament churches universally rejected the custom of women praying to God with head uncovered. Such a thing was also rejected by most all churches until about the last 100 years.
If the above is accurate with respect to what is written then anyone who embraces a belief that the instructions on head coverings were just for Corinth would be...
Ignorant of what is written in that what is written clearly shows no cultural connection at all and lays out reasons that apply across all times and all cultures.
Deceived in embracing modern day conjecture, theory, assumption, or otherwise about the cultural relevance of head coverings only for Corinth while ignoring what is plainly written in the text.
Outright rebellious in simply ignoring what is written despite knowing what it says.
Now someone could be innocently mistaken about this but such would fall into the ignorant category since to be innocently mistaken implies an ignorance of what is written such that they could be innocent in being mistaken.
I would appreciate hearing any thoughts on how my conclusion is faulty not for the purpose of arguing but rather to allow me to scrap this conclusion if on further reflection based on input...my conclusion does not represent the heart of God on this.
Thanks.
Carlos
One of those being that the church as a whole, especially in Western nations, is WAY off in it's own conclusions on what Paul said. So much so that I sometimes wonder if rebellion in the church runs much deeper than I have previously thought.
But for purposes of this thread I am particularly interested in getting input on the following statement that represents one conclusion I have tentatively come to.
Please make sure you read this entire post before anyone gets to jumping all over me regarding my tentative conclusion. Please note in particular the number of times I have bolded the word tentative meaning that my statement of conclusion below is...well...tentative such that I am open and very desirous of hearing how it may not represent truth by God on this matter.
The one thing I do not want to do under any circumstances is publish a book with a conclusion that is faulty by the Lord.
Anyone who embraces the belief that head coverings as taught by Paul were only instructions meant to be applied by the Corinthians and that they are irrelevant as such for today is either ignorant, deceived, or outright rebellious.
Let me briefly explain why I have tentatively concluded the above.
Paul gave a number of reasons to support what he taught about head coverings. ALL his reasons are culturally neutral. Meaning that his reasons apply to all time and in all places due to being rooted in things like the creation order and other such things.
NONE of Paul's reasons for the practice of head coverings are connected with the culture in Corinth or any other New Testament culture at all.
Note that I said NONE.
New Testament churches universally rejected the custom of women praying to God with head uncovered. Such a thing was also rejected by most all churches until about the last 100 years.
If the above is accurate with respect to what is written then anyone who embraces a belief that the instructions on head coverings were just for Corinth would be...
Ignorant of what is written in that what is written clearly shows no cultural connection at all and lays out reasons that apply across all times and all cultures.
Deceived in embracing modern day conjecture, theory, assumption, or otherwise about the cultural relevance of head coverings only for Corinth while ignoring what is plainly written in the text.
Outright rebellious in simply ignoring what is written despite knowing what it says.
Now someone could be innocently mistaken about this but such would fall into the ignorant category since to be innocently mistaken implies an ignorance of what is written such that they could be innocent in being mistaken.
I would appreciate hearing any thoughts on how my conclusion is faulty not for the purpose of arguing but rather to allow me to scrap this conclusion if on further reflection based on input...my conclusion does not represent the heart of God on this.
Thanks.
Carlos