regibassman57
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How does “sin” (as a lawless act) “deceive” a believer if they “know” what God’s word says about a situation intellectually?
They are deceived through how they “feel” emotionally; not intellectually. A believer can know what God’s word says from Genesis to Revelation, but if they do not have rule over their body/mind emotionally, they will be deceived (Pro. 25:28).
Rom 7:11 For “sin,” taking occasion by the commandment, “deceived me,” and by it slew me.
How is Paul saying he was deceived in Roman 7:11? Paul knew what God’s word said, so how could he possibly be intellectually deceived? Sin as an action is not what deceived Paul. As we read other scriptures, Paul said, “I had not “known” sin but by the law, I had “not” known “lust” except “the law” had said “thou shall not covet” (Rom.7:7). Paul recognized it was how he felt emotionally when he was tempted that caused his deception. Paul didn’t feel the emotional struggle of sin until he was justified by the law.
Rom 7:8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, “worked in me all manner of “lust.” For “without the law sin was dead.”
Without a man being justified by the law Satan could not deceive a person, convincing them to transgress the law by fulfilling the “lust” of the flesh. Without the law sin was dead. Where there is no law there would be no transgression, because God would not impute sin where there is no law. So the question would be, can a believer be deceived “to sin” where there is no law?
Rom 4:15 Because the law works wrath: for “where no law is,” “there is no transgression.”
Rom 5:13 For until the law “sin was in the world:” but “sin is not imputed when there is no law.”
Rom 4:8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord "will not impute sin."
They are deceived through how they “feel” emotionally; not intellectually. A believer can know what God’s word says from Genesis to Revelation, but if they do not have rule over their body/mind emotionally, they will be deceived (Pro. 25:28).
Rom 7:11 For “sin,” taking occasion by the commandment, “deceived me,” and by it slew me.
How is Paul saying he was deceived in Roman 7:11? Paul knew what God’s word said, so how could he possibly be intellectually deceived? Sin as an action is not what deceived Paul. As we read other scriptures, Paul said, “I had not “known” sin but by the law, I had “not” known “lust” except “the law” had said “thou shall not covet” (Rom.7:7). Paul recognized it was how he felt emotionally when he was tempted that caused his deception. Paul didn’t feel the emotional struggle of sin until he was justified by the law.
Rom 7:8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, “worked in me all manner of “lust.” For “without the law sin was dead.”
Without a man being justified by the law Satan could not deceive a person, convincing them to transgress the law by fulfilling the “lust” of the flesh. Without the law sin was dead. Where there is no law there would be no transgression, because God would not impute sin where there is no law. So the question would be, can a believer be deceived “to sin” where there is no law?
Rom 4:15 Because the law works wrath: for “where no law is,” “there is no transgression.”
Rom 5:13 For until the law “sin was in the world:” but “sin is not imputed when there is no law.”
Rom 4:8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord "will not impute sin."