Because he was talking to the Jews. Who understood that a sacrifice is not bloodless, and that it is in the blood that you have redemption.
Jews who understood wrongly.... That was the whole point of why the Father had to send a Messiah - because Judaism (whichever flavor) was wrong.
For in the day that I brought your ancestors out of the land of Egypt, I did not speak to them or command them concerning burnt offerings and sacrifices.- Jeremiah 7:22 NRSV
(Be sure to read the entire chapter)
Again, read Leviticus, and you will see that he did not speak to them, but to Moses. Unless you think Moses lied about it. Shrug, can't help you there, but evidently the Jews did continue to sacrifice and understood the sacrificial system whether required of them or not, as did Paul, who made it as I said unnecessary to explain it to them...power in the blood! \o/
I guess one could read Leviticus to get that understanding...
How can you say, "We are wise, and the TORAH (which includes Leviticus) of the LORD is with us," when, in fact, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie?- Jeremiah 8:8 NRSV
(Be sure to read the entire chapter)
Now you are frustrating and need to find another site. You have stated previously that the OT has been distorted, and so unreliable because of the scribes. If that is so, then if it is all unreliable, then even your reasoning is flawed because it will always be based upon distorted writings, that you can't confirm as being true. Oh, I love you brother, but don't come back when you leave. When text, context, and greater context is irrelevant to you to consider/use, and then when your eyes/self-reasoning says is true, can only be true then you are lost to have any discussion with anyone not you or possibly Leumas. You might want to contact Leumas and do your own site.
First, I realize how radical and unsettling this post might be. But the purpose of my post was to show that from the time of John even up to the sermon of Paul in Acts13, there was no mention at all of Jesus being any blood sacrifice to pay for sin.
In Acts 13, Paul mentioned not one word of Jesus being the blood sacrifice to pay for sins. (THAT'S MY POINT.)
Jesus did not have to for He was without sin. If He had then you'd be arguing that He couldn't be without sin, and thus the perfect sacrifice because He had done sin offerings at the temple!
It also necessary that He die as a sacrifice or know it now that you are still in your sin because you have no covenant blood being shed. But according to the Abrahamic Covenant and what is recorded is doubtful, since the scribes....
His words at Passover, should be enough to show you, but I doubt it.
At that particular time, I will state again Paul did not have to because it was understood by the audience, but he did in other places to different audiences. (THAT'S MY POINT).
and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross. Colossians 1:20 NIV
Please realize that I AM OPEN to being shown where I might be in error
ROFL - you may really think you are "OPEN", but from what I have seen, the instances that you have acknowledged you were wrong I could count on 1 hand, with 3 fingers missing, and one was not even for what was being said but in regard to some irrelevant comment you had made. I thought at the time you must be grinding your teeth in typing it, and why it didn't seem to fit to what was being said in the thread or post you were replying to.
I'll post this and then move it over to the Blasphemy thread along with your reply, so that it will satisfy your not disturbing this thread comment. Though instead I just might make a copy of both, so that others can see both replies and look to the other thread if they want to follow our back and forth. So, no need to reply to this one here, but if you want you can reply to the copied one at the thread called Blasphemy. Adios.
With the Love of Christ Jesus.
YBIC/Moderator
Nick
\o/
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