Rhema
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- Jun 28, 2021
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Hi lentz,The biggest problem for me,is why do so many have different interpretations of scriptures? I am sure a are sincere in their beliefs. And very adamant as well by the way.
I listen though to different teachers. They all have massive degrees in Hebrew,Latin,Greek,Texican,you name it. But none can agree. One will say in Hebrew,this means this. The others you listen to on same subject, no....it means this.
I said I would come back to this....
To be honest, I find this to be a problem of language itself. (And then one of tradition.)
Think with me here.... Modern English has more words in its vocabulary than modern French, modern Spanish, and modern German... COMBINED !
(- Robert MacNeil, from the PBS special)
The Story of English - Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org
This means that there is a single Hebrew word for which 60, maybe 80 English synonyms could be used, and some of these have nuance that give the exact opposite meaning.
I'll give an example here....
(Genesis 4:4 KJV) And Abel, he also brought of the firstlings of his flock and of the fat thereof. And the LORD had respect (H8159) unto Abel and to his offering:
But a good Hebrew lexicon (heck for all that matter you can check Strong's) will give you the primary definition of H8159 as "bewildered" or "dismay." Meaning, "and the LORD had dismay unto Abel and to his offering."
But that doesn't fit the narrative, now does it?
The same thing goes with Melchizedek and Abram, but I'm not about to bring that up here.
And I think you should challenge away, but make sure you don't wind up crucified here, brother.And that is why i seem to challenge people here.
Rhema