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History of the KJV

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Cody

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I have already posted most of the information about the King James Version in the Bible version poll thread, but I would like to post all the history and information in one certain thread. I pray that this information helps you see the power of God behind the King James Version of the Bible. If you have anything you would like to add, feel free to post after prayer.

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People say that God's word can only be found in the "originals." What's wrong with this? The originals are gone. God did not preserve them. And alas, there are only copies of 100's of Greek texts, many of them varying from text to text. If the "words" of God were only to be found in the originals, they are gone forever. If they are found only in these varying Greek texts, one scholar's guess is good as another. However there is an alternative: God actually fulfilled the promise of Psalms 12:6,7.

Psalms 12:6-7
6 "The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever."
KJV

According to this text, we should have the very Words of God. Which would show, Jesus Christ really did mean what He said in Matthew 24:35.

Matthew 24:35
"Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away." KJV


Don't be fooled by the claims of the so-called scholars. God has preserved His words. We have the scriptures given by inspiration of God according to 2 Timothy 3:16.

2 Timothy 3:16
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" KJV

(context is the last days of the church age).

With superior manuscripts from Antioch

Acts 11:26
"And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that a whole year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught much people. And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch." KJV


Superior translators.

Psalms 68:11
"The Lord gave the word: great was the company of those that published it." KJV


During the Philadelphian period of church history

Revelation 3:8
"I know thy works: behold, I have set before thee an open door, and no man can shut it: for thou hast a little strength, and hast kept my word, and hast not denied my name." KJV


Under authority of a king.

Ecclesiastes 8:4
"Where the word of a king is, there is power: and who may say unto him, What doest thou?" KJV


God preserved His Words in the English text of the Authorized King James Bible of 1611.

Someone who uses "modern versions", can only hold a "reliable translation" of a corrupt text from Alexandria, Egypt (Siniaticus & Vaticanus)

Deut 17:16-17
16 But he shall not multiply horses to himself, nor cause the people to return to Egypt, to the end that he should multiply horses: forasmuch as the LORD hath said unto you, Ye shall henceforth return no more that way.
17 Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold." KJV


And clam "only the originals were inspired", when they are no such things as the "originals" any longer.

Something else of note should be mentioned here, too. I am sure some of you who hear this message know of William Tyndale. He was one of the greatest of scholars. He was the one who said the time will come when every plow boy in England will be able to read the Bible. William Tyndale was at home in eight languages. He translated all of the New Testament and some parts of the Old Testament. He did such a tremendous job that the King James translators kept well over sixty percent of his translation intact, just as it was, to be used in the King James translation. William Tyndale was hounded like a wild animal by those who hated him and wanted him burned at the stake. Finally King Henry VII, through one of his stooges, caused Tyndale to be betrayed. He was thrown in prison, and finally at Vilvord, just outside of Brussels, Belgium, he was strangled to death by order of the king, and then his body was burned. Now, the last thing he said before he died, was this: "Oh, God, open the eyes of the king of England!" And do you know what? God answered that prayer in less than a year, when all of England had the Bible in the English language. It has been my privilege to stand there at that small monument that was erected some years after in Tyndale's memory.

Which Bible is Preserved of God?

Brief History of the KJV


I thought I would post some history on the King James Version. I just posted one paragraph, but if you want you can visit the above links to read more about the history.

I find it amazing how God answered William Tyndale's prayer that was, "Oh, God, open the eyes of the king of England!". Remember the kings before this was against translating the Bible into English. Then shortly after, God answered his prayer when King James allowed a team of people to get together and work on translating the Bible. After they were done it was printed out in the English language for all of England. This is why I love the King James Bible. The King James Bible was a prayer answered by God and people died for this Bible.

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Here is some more history on the King James Version. This article is by Dr. Laurence M. Vance.

THE AV 1611: Purified Seven Times


Psalms 12:6
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times." KJV


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Did you know the King James Version is the only Bible that came from Antioch? All the other versions came from Egypt. Should we read versions that have Egyptian roots? Take a look at the link below and lets see what the Bible says about Antioch and Egypt.

Antioch Bible or Alexandrian Bible?

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Here is a website that shows the grade level of the King James Version and other bibles.

Is the King James Bible Harder to Understand?


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Here are some websites that explain some false statements about the King James Version.

Haven't there been several revisions of the King James Bible since 1611?


The Myth of Early Revisions By Pastor David F. Reagan


Haven't there been several revisions of the KJV?

Didn't the King James Bible when first printed contain the Apocrypha?


Was King James a homosexual? Absolutely Not.

Some people argue that 1 John 5:7 shouldn't be in the King James Version, even though it proves the Trinity and has lots of back up on why they put that verse in the King James Version.

1 John 5:7 (Johannine Comma) - "These Three Are One"



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I see the power of God when I look at the history of the King James Version. Men of God died for the King James Version. The King James Version is a prayer answered by God, Himself. The King James Version isn't hard to read. It's on a 5.8 grade level scale. The King James Version isn't broken, so why fix the Bible and make a new version every year or so. The Word of God is preserved by God, Himself. I believe the King James Version is the preserved Word of God, without a doubt. I do not look down on anyone that reads another version, but I will thank God everyday for the preserved King James Version. God is good!

Psalms 12:6-7
6 "The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever." KJV


A Handy Reference For KJV Believers

The King James Bible Defended! <-- A must read

Here are some audios by a speaker, Gail Riplinger. Please listen to at least one of these audios. I recommend the first one listed.

Errors in the New Bible Translations

Whats MISSING in the New Bibles
 
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Brother

This is very interesting, i have logged onto cbd to buy myself a copy ,i have not read your entire thread ,but i will finish it tommorow, from what i have read i am interested to find out more,

Thank you for sharing
God Bless xxx
 
I started out reading the KJV then tried a few others, but wasn't long till I came back to it, I don't know what there is about it but it really draws me to it.
Perhaps all that history that went into the translation of it, and the lives that it cost, it comes with a price.

I heard a sermon saying that any books or bibles as the NIV being from Zondervan, that the proceeds also goes to pay for books about witchcraft and the occult. This has made me look to see if the books I buy have the Zondervan stamp on now.

We do really need to know these things.
What about the NKJV then, I don't have it, neither do I want one, but have heard of it?
 
I have the KJV Study Bible. Its really nice once you get the hang of the old language style, but its not bad like many assume. Its a lot better than the gibberish slangs used in common conversations nowadays after all like "sup", "yo", "aight". You know the garbage you hear. I'll take "thou" over "yo" any day.

I had the NKJV Study Bible. I had no issues with this either, although some out there refute it. I think the copyright matter is the reason beyond the word / phrase changes, which in the end may change the message slightly a bit. However, I would not dispute the NKJV at all.

On a another note, the NIV is certainly not something I recommend. Zondervan is owned by Harper Collins publishing company. They sell the "Satanic" bible too, so don't give your money to them at all.
 
you know it's just amazing how many Christian books are published under Zondervan.

I'd rather have thee's and thou's anyday too.
 
Jiggyfly

I have checked out one of the sites you posted, but the other does not work.

As for James White, he has some excellent apologetic materials on his website that I find truly profitable. However, he cannot be expected to look at the King James only debate objectively since he serves as a consultant with the NASB translation committee. Of course he would have to build an argument against it. If you would like to observe this subject objectively, consider also some of the websites listed previously. On one of those websites is some material that refutes the allegations of James White.




Maureen
I'd rather have thee's and thou's anyday too
.

Maureen, I actually have developed a better understanding because of the archaic language especially when one considers the clarity of these articles that have been lost in modern English. Let me demonstrate what I mean using your avatar.

Jesus tells Nicodemus:

Jhn 3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.

What is lost in modern translations is the distinctive plural form of 'you', which is archaically (don't know if that's a word) 'ye.' Without reading footnotes or anything else, the message is not as resounding and distinctively clear. Jesus literally tells Nicodemus "Marvel not that I said unto you, YOU ALL must be born again. Jesus specifically addresses all people when making this statement, not just Nicodemus. Understanding all the archaic language and the thees and thous provides much more clarity when I read it.

I want to stress, however, that I do not judge anybody by the version of the Bible they choose. If that were the case, I would have to side with many who use the KJV, yet promote false teachings such as the Mormons. Likewise, I would lose out on the many great ministries that put forward some awesome teachings using other versions. If you have any questions, please ask. I will do my best to answer as I have studied alot on this subject. I certainly make no claim to know it all, though.

Grace and peace all
 
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you know it's just amazing how many Christian books are published under Zondervan.

I'd rather have thee's and thou's anyday too.

Amen, sister! I don't see how the thee's and thou's can make a the KJV hard to read. The KJV is far more easier to read than any Shakespeare novel. We need to start getting the facts instead of buying the "easiest to read" Bible out today.
 
Today I was reading in Exodus where Moses presented himself to Pharaoh, as he tried to secure the release of the nation of Israel from their bondage. It seemed at the onset that all that Moses did in the way of signs, was easily copied by the Egyptian magicians.

But there came a point where such duplication, could go no further. Ex. 8 v 18-19 "This is the finger of God......" they had to say.

The King James Version, known in the U.K. as the Authorised Version, (because the translation was authorised) is rich in poetry, literature, history, prophecy, has a style and grandeur unequalled.
More than this it is the word of God, setting forth Jesus as 'the son' not 'a son' of God, and when using the 'Strongs' or 'Youngs' exhaustive concordance, great minds, or ordinary folk alike can find their way to truth about God, as revealed by holy men of God, who spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
 
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I dont particularly like the 'new' versions, I've bought and read some but I use my KJB always, it is the one that goes back and forth to Church with me.

Hisalone
Thank you for the wonderful explaintion, I once was told, but they didn't speak like that in Jesus day, in Thee's Thou's and ye's so it doesn't matter what version is used.
Perhaps that is so, but there is just something that really does draw me to the KJB the others just don't 'have' it for me anyway.
But I have nothing against anyone using whatever version they want.

I heard a preacher one time say, you should use nothing only the KJB but I don't think we are to push on our agenda to others, I don't see anything wrong with cross referencing them, as I would do sometimes, but I just have to give KJB my vote.
 
Why those Thee's and Ye's?

Amen, sister! I don't see how the thee's and thou's can make a the KJV hard to read. The KJV is far more easier to read than any Shakespeare novel. We need to start getting the facts instead of buying the "easiest to read" Bible out today.

Amen, saints. The King Jamer Bible is far more accurate and the only Bible seriously defended as being the inerrant word of God.

Why those "thee"s and "ye"s are more accurate.

Is archaic language always a bad thing? What about all those "Ye"s and "Thee"s? Would you change all those words like "ye, thee, thine, and thy"? Do you know the difference in meaning and why they are actually more accurate than the modernized, generic "you" as found in the NKJV, NIV, NASB, Holman, and ESV?

The popular NIV introduction erects a strawman argument and gives misleading information regarding the use of "thou" "thee" and "thine". On page xviii of my NIV Scofield edition, the editors state: "As for the traditional pronouns "thou" "thee" and "thine" in reference to the Deity, the translators judged that to use these archaisms, along with the old verb forms such as "doest", "wouldest" and "hadst" would violate accuracy in translation. Neither Hebrew, Aramaic nor Greek uses special pronouns for the persons of the Godhead."

To put it kindly, this NIV introduction is pure baloney. First of all, the use of the words thou, thee, and thine are not used only in reference to Deity. They express the Hebrew and Greek singular "you" as opposed to the plural "you" which is rendered as "you", "ye" and "your". Thou, thee and thine are used not only when addressing God but also when speaking to the common man and even to the devil himself. "Then saith Jesus unto him, Get THEE hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." Matthew 4:10.

Secondly, instead of "violating accuracy in translation", the fact is the use of such pronouns is FAR MORE accurate to the Hebrew and Greek languages than the generic "you" for both singular and plural.

Most languages have a singular and a plural form of the second person - the person being spoken to - "you". There is the singular "you" and then there is the plural, like "you all". This is found in the Hebrew and Greek languages as well as Spanish, French, Italian and many other world languages.

In English this distinction is expressed by "Thou" meaning "you singular, and you alone" and "Ye" meaning "all of you, plural". This distinction makes a big difference in hundreds of passages in the Bible.

For instance, in Luke 22:31-32 the Lord says to Peter: "Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have YOU, that he may sift YOU as wheat: But I have prayed for THEE, that THY faith fail not: and when THOU art converted, strengthen THY brethren."

Here the word YOU is plural in both the Greek and the English, meaning Satan was going to sift all of the disciples, "you all"; but Jesus is letting Peter know that He had prayed for him (thee) specifically as an individual.

In John chapter four, the Samaritan woman at the well is speaking to Jesus and says: "Sir, I perceive that THOU art a prophet. Our fathers worshipped in this mountain; and YE say (all you Jews) that in Jerusalem is the place where men ought to worship."

Then the Lord says to this individual: "Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when YE shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father. YE worship YE know not what: we know what we worship; for salvation is of the Jews." Here the YE means "all of you who are Samaritans", not just the individual woman to whom He was speaking.

One of many cases where a lot of confusion is caused by not following the "ye" and "thee" pattern is seen in Jeremiah 5:14. In Jeremiah 5:13-14 the Lord says: "And the prophets shall become wind, and the word is not in them: thus shall it be done unto them. Wherefore thus saith the LORD God of hosts, Because YE speak this word, behold, I will make my words in THY mouth fire, and this people wood, and it shall devour them."

God is referring to the false prophets when He says "because YE speak this word" but He is talking to Jeremiah, the true prophet, when He says "I will make my words in THY mouth fire".

The confusion is seen in such versions as the NKJV, NASB, NIV, ESV. The NKJV says: "Because YOU speak this word, Behold, I will make my words in YOUR mouth fire." The NKJV meaning ends up being nonsense.

The NKJV badly misses the correct Hebrew reading of Jeremiah 27:2. The King James Bible, as well as the Hebrew texts, the RV, ASV, Young's and many other translations correctly have God saying to Jeremiah: "Thus saith the LORD to me; Make THEE bonds and yokes, and put them upon thy neck, And send them to the king of Edom...." Even the NASB and ESV have the singular "yourself". However the NKJV changes this singular "thee" into a plural "make for YOURSELVES bonds and yokes". The NIV simply omits the word altogether.

Another among many verses that are cleared up by recognizing this difference between Thee and You is found in Acts 13:34. Here Peter is preaching in a synagogue about Christ, the Son of God. Peter says: "And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give YOU the sure mercies of David."

If you neglect this distinction between Thee and You, one would naturally think God is saying to the risen Christ "I will give YOU the sure mercies of David." But He isn't referring to Christ. God is speaking to all HIS PEOPLE - YOU.

In 2 Chronicles 7:17-19 after the dedication of the temple, God speaks to Solomon. He says: "And as for THEE, if THOU wilt walk before me...and do all that I have commanded THEE...Then I will establish the throne of THY kingdom...But if YE turn away, and forsake my statutes and my commandments...and shalt go and serve other gods..."

First God is speaking individually to king Solomon with THEE, THOU, and THY; but then He addresses all the people of Israel with "YE".
 
Where did the other 14 books go?

So I've been privilaged to see pictures of a copy of the KJV that predated 1800 (but not by much).

It had 80 books.

What happened to the 14 books removed in the 1800's by an American publishing company?

I thought the KJV was supposed to have been done going through it's 7 purifications already?

The version of the KJV which Luther, Calvin, and most of the other "great" theologians and scholars of the Reformation used had 80 books.

Yet I hear the "KJV Only" people speak only of the 66 books in the most recent editions.

Could someone provide an explanation of that?
 
The Holy Bible has 66 books total. I have a copy of the KJV Study Bible and it also has 66 books. Not sure where these 80 came from but I have never heard this in the 6 years I've been a believer.
 
Sirach 39:1 (KJV1611 Edition):
But hee that giueth his minde to the Law
of the most high, and is occupied
in the meditation thereof, wil seeke out
the wisdome of all the ancient, and
be occupied in prophecies.

Don't kill a tree.
from e-sword I have three Bibles (electronic)
/but without the Translator Footnotes/:

1. Geneva Bible, 1586 Edition
2. KJV1611 Edition with Apocrypha
3. KJV1769 Edition with Strong's Numbers
 
So I've been privilaged to see pictures of a copy of the KJV that predated 1800 (but not by much).

It had 80 books.

What happened to the 14 books removed in the 1800's by an American publishing company?

I thought the KJV was supposed to have been done going through it's 7 purifications already?

The version of the KJV which Luther, Calvin, and most of the other "great" theologians and scholars of the Reformation used had 80 books.

Yet I hear the "KJV Only" people speak only of the 66 books in the most recent editions.

Could someone provide an explanation of that?

Luther and Calvin did not use a KJV bible but I do agree with you on the point that the apocrypha was removed in the latter revisions of the KJV.

I would like to know which edition or revision of the KJV is inerrant????????
 
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...
I would like to know which edition or revision of the KJV is inerrant????????

All of them. :lightbulb

---------------------------

Which King James Version do you use?
Here is a sample test:

1. Ruth III:15d (KJV1611):

... and he went into the citie.

2. Ruth 3:15 (KJV1769):

... and she went into the city.

3. Ruth 3:15 (KJV1873):

... and he went into the city.

---------------------------

I believe axiomatically that all English versions
of God's Written Word, the Holy Bible, are
inerrant.

I conclude that:
if there seems to be a
difference of significance between the reading
of one Bible compared to another Bible
(or one Bible with itself) -- that perception is
of HUMAN not GODly origin.

I conclude that:
The Holy Spirit magnifies His ministry if one
uses multiple translations.
 
All of them. :lightbulb

---------------------------

Which King James Version do you use?
Here is a sample test:

1. Ruth III:15d (KJV1611):

... and he went into the citie.

2. Ruth 3:15 (KJV1769):

... and she went into the city.

3. Ruth 3:15 (KJV1873):

... and he went into the city.

---------------------------

I believe axiomatically that all English versions
of God's Written Word, the Holy Bible, are
inerrant.

I conclude that:
if there seems to be a
difference of significance between the reading
of one Bible compared to another Bible
(or one Bible with itself) -- that perception is
of HUMAN not GODly origin.

I conclude that:
The Holy Spirit magnifies His ministry if one
uses multiple translations.
Impossible. God is neither confused, influenced by alterations, nor deceived by man's devices.

I'm amazed that you would defame the word of God with your "conclusions"!
:lightning:lightning:lightning
 
The Holy Bible has 66 books total. I have a copy of the KJV Study Bible and it also has 66 books. Not sure where these 80 came from but I have never heard this in the 6 years I've been a believer.
The "80" comes from the inclusion of the apocrypha and some of what are called "The Forgotten Books"

The 14 other books were never considered part of the Canon of Scripture and were for reference only.
 
The following verse was the favorite
Salvation verse from the favorite Bible
in the USofA (& the American colonies
before the USofA was founded) until about 1830

Romans 10:9 (Geneva Bible, 1587 Edition):

For if thou shalt confesse with thy mouth
the Lord Iesus, and shalt beleeue in thine heart,
that God raised him vp from the dead,
thou shalt be saued:


This verse from the KJV1611 was the
Salvation verse from the favorite Bible
standard in the rest of the British empire
BY ORDER OF THE KING OF ENGLAND
from about 1630:

Rom 10:9 (KJV1611 Edition):

That if thou shalt confesse with thy mouth
the Lord Iesus, and shalt beleeue in thine heart,
that God hath raised him from the dead,
thou shalt be saued.


In both 1762 and 1769 newly revised
KJVs were for sale in England -- these were
NOT accepted in the 13 American Colonies
by the rebels. The Geneva Bible was way
more acceptable.

One of the reasons for the 13 colonies
in America spliting from Great Britian
was the tax on the KJV. THe KJV sold
for 3 Pounds of Sterling Silver -
like 6 months for a skilled laboarer.
One of those Pounds went direct to the
holder of the copyright on the KJV -
the King of England.

There was some copying of the KJV
going on the the new USofA.
They insisted on calling it the
Authorized Version (authorized by God
instead of King James I?)
not by the accursed name of 'King James I
of England'.
 
The following verse was the favorite
Salvation verse from the favorite Bible
in the USofA (& the American colonies
before the USofA was founded) until about 1830

Romans 10:9 (Geneva Bible, 1587 Edition):

For if thou shalt confesse with thy mouth
the Lord Iesus, and shalt beleeue in thine heart,
that God raised him vp from the dead,
thou shalt be saued:


This verse from the KJV1611 was the
Salvation verse from the favorite Bible
standard in the rest of the British empire
BY ORDER OF THE KING OF ENGLAND
from about 1630:

Rom 10:9 (KJV1611 Edition):

That if thou shalt confesse with thy mouth
the Lord Iesus, and shalt beleeue in thine heart,
that God hath raised him from the dead,
thou shalt be saued.


In both 1762 and 1769 newly revised
KJVs were for sale in England -- these were
NOT accepted in the 13 American Colonies
by the rebels. The Geneva Bible was way
more acceptable.

One of the reasons for the 13 colonies
in America spliting from Great Britian
was the tax on the KJV. THe KJV sold
for 3 Pounds of Sterling Silver -
like 6 months for a skilled laboarer.
One of those Pounds went direct to the
holder of the copyright on the KJV -
the King of England.

There was some copying of the KJV
going on the the new USofA.
They insisted on calling it the
Authorized Version (authorized by God
instead of King James I?)
not by the accursed name of 'King James I
of England'.
Thank you for the info, but what is a "laboarer"?

BTW, when did this "tax" you say stopped being imposed?
 
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