Those verses are about Jesus in the OT. He was not even called Jesus at that time, simply the Son and Word. And yes He was divine. God translated today is synonym to divine, or being in spirit form. The term god also symbolised a form of divine authority, which is why Moses, a mere man, was said to be like a god unto Pharaoh. (
Exodus 7:1) Yet according to you Moses somehow is now divine? Is Moses flesh or spirit? In terms of the true God, authority over all creation, the Father is that one God, both in being divine and being the ultimate authority figure, there is no other God. It is the Father who gave all authority even to His Son Jesus, the Son had no authority on His own.
This is based off a lack of reading comprehension. This is not an insult, but if you were to see the situation at hand, you would realize the statement you made above is under a false premise.
"you will be
LIKE a god" not A GOD. Huge difference. To everyone? No. "Like a god
unto pharaoh " and "Aaron will be your prophet".
I believe you are not grasping the context of the situation. Please do not put words in my mouth though. According to me, Moses was not divine, but an obedient servant to God.
Either you believe that the Word remained divine in spirit form, or you believe the Word was truly made flesh and became mortal.
Mortality cannot coexist with divinity (immortality), they are mutually exclusive.
Who are you to set the guidelines? You cannot set your own rules and regs. upon what God can and cannot do. I believe, through what scripture says, that Jesus who is the word, became flesh, still retaining his divinity that he was worshiped. I believe God is all powerful, that he can become flesh and still retain divinity at the same time. That Jesus lead his life under the OT laws, setting an example for us and teaching us of the new covenant that was to come after his death, burial and resurrection.
Jesus said, "I and the Father are one" and "if you have seen me, then you have seen the Father".
Philippians (Paul) claims Jesus is "equal to God"
If Jesus remained divine in the true sense as the Man of Nazareth, why didn’t He just tell them “I did not blaspheme?” Instead He mentioned past examples of how even mere mortals can be considered as gods. Moses was one such example in Exodus but he was nowhere considered immortal or divine by anyone. So Jesus made it very clear He was indeed fully mortal as the Man of Nazareth.
In Psalms 82:6, the judges of Israel were called "gods" because of their representative position of authority and responsibility among the people. These judges were God's representatives, charged with executing fair and impartial judgments in Israel (Psalms 82:2-4). To go before the judges was to go before God (cf. Ex 21:6; 22:8-9,28), for they were charged with rendering God's judgments (Deut 1:16-17). The Psalm 82 depicts God rebuking these "gods" (the unjust judges) for their corruption of justice. Because they failed to judge righteously, God would now judge them (Psalms 82:1,7-8). Even so, because of their God-given position of power, the psalmist called the unrighteous judges "gods."
Again, I would state that you are not grasping the context of the situation. No mere human was ever born "full of grace and truth"(John 1:14). This was "God the Son" Jesus, divine, that people came from across distances to worship.
Only God is to be worshipped? Not true. In Revelations 3:9 KJV
Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie;
behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
God is to be worshipped, but God can also make anyone worship at people’s feet, people whom He loves. The same is said about Jesus:
Hebrews 1:6 And when he brought his supreme Son into the world,
God said, “Let all of God's angels worship him.
Philippians 2:10 so that
at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth
It is God Himself who decreed that the Son is to be worshipped, whether the Son is a man, a spirit or whatever. God decides who is to be worshipped as His representative, not us.
In Revelation 3:9 Jesus promised that He would vindicate His people and make sure that their persecutors recognized they were wrong, and that Jesus and His followers were right. The idea is of vindication before self-righteous “spiritual” persecutors. God promised that the church in Philadelphia would be vindicated before their persecutors. After all, Revelation is a "signified" book. Lots of figurative language. 3:9 doesnt speak of literal worship to mere mortal humans.
God promised Israel that Gentiles would honor them and acknowledge their God (Isaiah 45:14). Now the tables were somewhat turned, and these Jewish people “will play the role of the heathen and acknowledge that the church is the Israel of God.” (Mounce) Quote
1 Corinthians 14:24-25 speaks of unbelievers falling down in the midst of Christians to worship God. This establishes that it wasn’t Christians who were being worshipped, but God was worshipped in the
presence of Christians. (Guzik) Quote
And of course one would worship Jesus, he is God the Son, but still God as there is one God.
Thank you for your time with me discussing important issues.