Yes.
By default, it IS given by the Holy Spirit. Not when a man thinks he should.
Acts 2:1-13 at Pentecost.
God miraculously enabled believers to speak real human languages they did not previously know.
Purpose: Prayer, worship, and personal edification — unless accompanied by interpretation.
Paul gives extensive teaching about this second type:
✔ A language directed
- “For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God.”
— 1 Corinthians 14:2
✔ Edifies the speaker
- “He that speaks in a tongue edifies himself.”
— 1 Corinthians 14:4
✔ Requires interpretation in church
- “If there is no interpreter, let him keep silent in the church and speak to himself and God.”
— 1 Corinthians 14:28
✔ Paul accepts and participates in tongues
- “I thank God that I speak in tongues more than you all.”
— 1 Corinthians 14:18
✔ But he insists on order
- “Let all things be done decently and in order.”
— 1 Corinthians 14:40
Biblical meaning here:

A Spirit-given prayer language used in private or public worship, but interpretation is required for congregational use.
I wonder. Every time this comes up someone "claims" they have or can with zero evidence.
If they haven't they "know someone" who has and can and again with no evidence.