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How Can God Send People to Hell Who Haven't Heard About Jesus?

God prohibits dishonesty.

Lev 19:11 . . You shall not deal falsely, neither lie one to another.

I think it's probably safe to posit that more liars are now, and more liars will be, in
Hell than gays and lesbians simply because deceit, deception, fraud, cover-ups,
dissembling, cheating, false impressions, pretense, and half truths are far more
common.

Rev 21:8 . . . All liars; their part will be in the lake that burns with fire and
brimstone, which is the second death.
_
 
Sorry I haven't responded to the posts. I've been really busy the last few days. I'll respond when I get some time
 
If man does not live on after the body dies, then how can he be resurrected if he ceased to exists after he has died? How can Christ be resurrected?

Hence the spirits of the dead are raised up as Christ Jesus was raised up.
But, it's the body that is resurrected, not the spirit. How can he be resurrected? How did God create Adam? Read Ezekiel 37, that explains how God will do it.
Where did Christ go after He had died? He descended to preach unto those in prison.
Did He?
Ephesians 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)
"Wherefore he saith". So, let's look where he saith it.

18 <1> Thou art gone up on high, thou hast led captivity captive, thou hast received gifts for man, yea, for they were rebellious, that thou mightest dwell among them. (Ps. 68:18 LXE)


It's in Psalm 68. What's Psalm 68 about? Without going deeply into it here is another verse.

6 God settles the solitary in a house; leading forth prisoners mightily, also them that act provokingly, even them that dwell in tombs. (Ps. 68:6 LXE)

Another,

19 Blessed be the Lord God, blessed be the Lord daily; and the God of our salvation shall prosper us. Pause.
20 Our God is the God of salvation; and to the Lord belong the issues from death. (Ps. 68:19-20 LXE)


We can see from the context that It's talking about leading people out of their tombs, not leading people out of a subterranean underworld. Did we see this?

50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;
52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection,
and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many. (Matt. 27:50-53 KJV)


We see that when Jesus resurrected the graves of the saints were opened and many of the "Bodies" arose. Again, we can see the passage refers to the dead, not leading living ghosts out of a subterranean place of holding
1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
20 Which sometime were disobedient,....
Notice the word order in this passage. Christ, suffered for sins, was put to do death, was quickened by the Breath (Spirit), then went and proclaimed to the breaths, (spirits)
The word order shows us that He made a proclamation after He was quickened, thus He was alive when He did it. The Greek word there for preached isn't the typical word used to preach the Gospel. It means to proclaim something. So, what did He proclaim to the breaths (spirits which are angles, demons) in prison? What happened when Christ was resurrected?

And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. (Matt. 28:18 NKJ)

Did Christ meet the thief on the cross that day in Paradise after He & the thief had died? He said He would & I believe Christ did meet him in Paradise aka Abraham's bosom that day. Why else to say that to the thief per his request?

Luke 23:40 But the other answering rebuked him, saying, Dost not thou fear God, seeing thou art in the same condemnation?
41 And we indeed justly; for we receive the due reward of our deeds: but this man hath done nothing amiss.
42 And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom.
43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise.

You can play with the commas all you want but scripture did not originally had commas and it still does not change His answer to the thief on the cross for when the thief would be with Him in Paradise which is that day.
Firstly, lets look at what the thief asked. What was it? Did he ask Jesus to remember him when He came into His Kingdom or did he ask Jesus where they'd be later that day? Is, what you call Abraham's bosom or Paradise, Jesus' Kingdom?

Here's an issue I find with this doctrine. There is nothing that I'm aware of in Scripture that tells us there is a Garden in Hades. People take the event of the thief and the parable of Lazarus and the Rich Man, conflate the two and create a whole new doctrine, that of Paradise being Abraham's bosom. You see through most of the Bible the translators translate the word Paradeisos as garden. That's what it means. However, there are about 3 places where they transliterate rather than translate the word. When they transliterate the word it is Paradise. The question is why do they do this? I suspect they do it when they feel the word garden doesn't fit their theology. So, the question then becomes, Did Jesus and the thief go to a garden that day? What we do find in Scripture, in Isaiah, is him describing the restored Jerusalem and he says the desert is going to bloom. In Genesis we find,

And the LORD God planted a garden eastward in Eden; and there he put the man whom he had formed.
9 And out of the ground made the LORD God to grow every tree that is pleasant to the sight, and good for food; the tree of life also in the midst of the garden, and the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
10 And a river went out of Eden to water the garden; and from thence it was parted, and became into four heads.
11 The name of the first is Pison: that is it which compasseth the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold;
12 And the gold of that land is good: there is bdellium and the onyx stone.
13 And the name of the second river is Gihon: the same is it that compasseth the whole land of Ethiopia.
14 And the name of the third river is Hiddekel: that is it which goeth toward the east of Assyria. And the fourth river is Euphrates.
15 And the LORD God took the man, and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it.
16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:
17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. (Gen. 2:8-17 KJV)


All of the bolded words, garden, are the Greek word paradeisos, or Paradise. God planted a paradise and called it Eden. Eden is God's paradise. In that paradise was the tree of life. We also see mention of this paradise in Revelation.

He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God. (Rev. 2:7 KJV)

Here Jesus says that to the overcomer He will give to eat of the tree of life which is in the paradise of God. Well, we saw that Eden is the paradise of God. We know that God is going to restore the creation so that means we'll see God's paradise of Eden. Jesus promised this to the overcomer. Notice what is there. It is the tree of life. How does man get eternal life? By having access to the Tree of Life. So, let's consider the thief's request again. He asked Jesus to remember him when He came into His kingdom. Jesus replied, you will be with Me in Paradise. Since the thief was a Jew and knew his Old Testament, he would know what paradise meant. So, let me ask this, If paradise is eternal life in the kingdom didn't that answer the thief's question? How does telling the thief he'll be in some subterranean underworld later that day answer the thief's question? It doesn't.

I addition, there is nothing in the text that says they would be alive later that day. That's simply assumed.
 
We all prophesy in part and know in part but when we see Him face to face, we shall know everything.
I believe that passage was something pertaining to Paul's day.
But as it is, personal beliefs can interfere with seeing the truth in the scripture as it is written and since you are already doubting scripture in English for why you go to the Greek & Hebrew, rather than to Him for wisdom, in discerning the truth in His words in the KJV, I can only suggest that you pray for His help to see the truth in His words in the Greek & Hebrew if not in the English.
Well, The English you read comes from the Greek and Hebrew texts. So, you're also relying on the Greek and Hebrew text. The difference is you're relying on some one else's opinion of what those texts say.

Actually, I prayed for the Lord to help me understand the Bible long before I was ever a Christian. He has fulfilled that request in spades.
Like it or not, those who go to the Greek and Hebrew disagree among themselves also for the meaning of His words. Hence wisdom is needed from the Lord to see the truth in His words and not just to see the truth in His parables.
People are always going to disagree. It doesn't matter what the language. The key is whose understanding align with Scripture properly exegeted.
 
Hello @Butch5.

I believe that when Paul speaks of, 'this tabernacle', and 'a building of God', then he is referring to our mortal and immortal state, in terms of our bodies being like houses which we live in and through.

* Thank you for this insight.

* Praise God! Yes, I see what you are saying, and agree.

* The coming of the Lord, as spoken of by Paul in 1 Thessalonians 4, was the hope of the believer at the time that Paul wrote this epistle. The preaching of the twelve was geared towards the repentance of Israel, and the returning of the Saviour as preached by Peter in Acts 3:18-20. Paul therefore would expect to be living at the time of the Lord's coming, So being' absent from the body', would have meant being 'present with the Lord', for the Lord would have come into the air, and they would have been changed in a moment in the twinkling of an eye, from mortal to immortality, and have a resurrection body like that of their Lord. That was preferable to either being naked in death, or alive and being' absent from the Lord'.

* God, in His foreknowledge knew the outcome of the preaching of the twelve, and he was under no illusions as to Israel's response, but opportunity had to be given.

* I will certainly look at what you have said, and check it out.

Thank you for the time and thought you have given to this entry, and for sharing it with us.
In Christ Jesus
Chris
HI Chris,

You're Welcome and I agree
 
'And fear not them which kill the body,
but are not able to kill the soul:
but rather fear Him
Which is able to destroy
both soul and body in hell.'
(Mat 10:28)

I do not see the difference between man and God in killing the body since man is doing the same thing in taking away the breath of life in putting the man he killed in the grave.

For there to be a difference, for why we should fear God and not man that can kill the body, the soul has to be more than the breath of life to be sent to hell in the afterlife to be destroyed so as to suffer eternal torment.
The soul isn't the Breath of Life. The Breath of LIfe is the spirit.. The soul is the body and the Breath of Life combined.

And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. (Gen. 2:7 KJV)

What we see in this passage is that the man, after being infused with the Breath of Life "became" a living soul. That body "became" a living soul It is the body that is a soul. From that statement there is no way to separate the body from the soul except by death where God's breath returns to Him. Once the two separate, the soul no longer exists. The soul doesn't exist without the body.
 
The soul isn't the Breath of Life. The Breath of LIfe is the spirit.. The soul is the body and the Breath of Life combined.

And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. (Gen. 2:7 KJV)

What we see in this passage is that the man, after being infused with the Breath of Life "became" a living soul. That body "became" a living soul It is the body that is a soul. From that statement there is no way to separate the body from the soul except by death where God's breath returns to Him. Once the two separate, the soul no longer exists. The soul doesn't exist without the body.
Then explain the difference between man destroying the body and God destroying the soul & body in hell ( Gehenna ) for why believers should fear when being persecuted to death?

'And fear not them which kill the body,
but are not able to kill the soul:
but rather fear Him
Which is able to destroy
both soul and body in hell.'
(Mat 10:28)

Hell is not the afterlife hell but hell on earth, the place of slaughter, when saved believers are left behind as damned as vessels unto dishonor in His House to be resurrected after the great tribulation but not as the firstfruits of the resurrection that live forever like the angels that can never die nor marry, but resurrected in a glorified terrestrial body with only the power of the second death not being over them Revelation 20:4-6, but the power of the first death still does for why they need to eat from the tree of life in New Jerusalem for the healing of the nations. They shall be marrying in raising up the generations following them in that 1000 year reign of Christ.

After 1000 year reign and Satan is released from the pit for a small season for a last rebellion, Satan is defeated and cast into the lake of fire for when death and hell shall give up the dead to be judged at the Great White Throne Judgment. When death and hell are cast into the lake of fire, then the power of the first death will no longer be over those saints resurrected after the great tribulation nor over those remaining loyal to Christ after Satan's last rebellion. Then death is swallowed up in victory before Jesus hands over the completed kingdom of Heaven back to the Father.

So that is why there is fear for the saved believer because something of the soul is destroyed when left behind on earth in Gehenna as that first inheritance is destroyed of living like the angels that never die and never marry as any that deny Him to save their own lives, He will deny them, but if they repent before the Bridegroom comes and with His help to confess Him before men to even die for Him, then He will not deny them when He comes.

As it is, you have not really shown the consequence for why any saved believer should be afraid of God that can destroy the soul and body in hell on earth if the consequence you claim be the same as for when man kills the body.
 
Then explain the difference between man destroying the body and God destroying the soul & body in hell ( Gehenna ) for why believers should fear when being persecuted to death?

'And fear not them which kill the body,
but are not able to kill the soul:
but rather fear Him
Which is able to destroy
both soul and body in hell.'
(Mat 10:28)

Hell is not the afterlife hell but hell on earth, the place of slaughter, when saved believers are left behind as damned as vessels unto dishonor in His House to be resurrected after the great tribulation but not as the firstfruits of the resurrection that live forever like the angels that can never die nor marry, but resurrected in a glorified terrestrial body with only the power of the second death not being over them Revelation 20:4-6, but the power of the first death still does for why they need to eat from the tree of life in New Jerusalem for the healing of the nations. They shall be marrying in raising up the generations following them in that 1000 year reign of Christ.

After 1000 year reign and Satan is released from the pit for a small season for a last rebellion, Satan is defeated and cast into the lake of fire for when death and hell shall give up the dead to be judged at the Great White Throne Judgment. When death and hell are cast into the lake of fire, then the power of the first death will no longer be over those saints resurrected after the great tribulation nor over those remaining loyal to Christ after Satan's last rebellion. Then death is swallowed up in victory before Jesus hands over the completed kingdom of Heaven back to the Father.

So that is why there is fear for the saved believer because something of the soul is destroyed when left behind on earth in Gehenna as that first inheritance is destroyed of living like the angels that never die and never marry as any that deny Him to save their own lives, He will deny them, but if they repent before the Bridegroom comes and with His help to confess Him before men to even die for Him, then He will not deny them when He comes.

As it is, you have not really shown the consequence for why any saved believer should be afraid of God that can destroy the soul and body in hell on earth if the consequence you claim be the same as for when man kills the body.
My first question is, where in Scripture do you find two hells?

I have explained it. The Bible tells us that God holds our life (soul) in His hand.

In whose hand is the soul of every living thing, and the breath of all mankind. (Job 12:10 KJV)

Man can kill, but he cannot kill that which is in God's hand, the soul. That is because of the Resurrection. Everyone will one day be resurrected. So, when man kills, he kills the body, however, that is not the end of that person. They will be resurrected and live again. So, they will again be a living soul. Thus, man killing did not kill the soul, only the body. However, God is able to destroy, that soul and that body. So, Jesus' statement is essentially saying, don't fear man. He can kill but that's not the end of you. However, fear God, because He can destroy both your body and your soul (life). And, when God does it it's permanent. If man kill there's more life to come. If God destroys, there is no more life to come.
 
My first question is, where in Scripture do you find two hells?
When they translate hell from Gehenna, than that is a hell on earth, a place of slaughter or as a refuge dump outside the City of Jerusalem depending on how it is used in the verse in the context of the message given.

When they translate hell from sheol or hades, than that is either the grave or the afterlife depending on how it is used in the verse in the context of the message given.

I fail to see why Jesus would refer to an existence of suffering in hell in the after life if there was no after life. No matter how you spin it, for Jesus to tell us the story of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus, in Abraham's bosom, no less, where Abraham was speaking even, goes to show that there is an awareness and an existence in the after life. Otherwise, the point of the rich man's request to warn his brothers of hell in the after life would be moot in Jesus citing the sinful condition of man for why they will not believe a man resurrected from the dead warning them of such when they refuse to heed the warnings from the Word of God.
I have explained it. The Bible tells us that God holds our life (soul) in His hand.

In whose hand is the soul of every living thing, and the breath of all mankind. (Job 12:10 KJV)
You cannot see two separate things in Job 12:10? I do. I understand your point of view but just saying I can read 2 different things in that verse whereas you don't.
Man can kill, but he cannot kill that which is in God's hand, the soul. That is because of the Resurrection. Everyone will one day be resurrected. So, when man kills, he kills the body, however, that is not the end of that person. They will be resurrected and live again. So, they will again be a living soul. Thus, man killing did not kill the soul, only the body. However, God is able to destroy, that soul and that body. So, Jesus' statement is essentially saying, don't fear man. He can kill but that's not the end of you. However, fear God, because He can destroy both your body and your soul (life). And, when God does it it's permanent. If man kill there's more life to come. If God destroys, there is no more life to come.
In the Great White Throne Judgment, unbelievers will be resurrected and judged before cast into the lake of fire to burn forever which is the second death i.e. eternal torment.

Since hell and death and the sea had to give up the deads, then there is an existence after death for them to give them up.
 
When they translate hell from Gehenna, than that is a hell on earth, a place of slaughter or as a refuge dump outside the City of Jerusalem depending on how it is used in the verse in the context of the message given.

When they translate hell from sheol or hades, than that is either the grave or the afterlife depending on how it is used in the verse in the context of the message given.
The problem there is that the idea of a subterranean underworld doesn't work in many passages. The grave works in all of them. Thus, the grave is the correct definition, not a subterranean underworld. Just because a concept can be forced into Scripture doesn't mean that's what Scriptures teach. I've already explained this parable. I gave Mathew's words saying that Jesus "only" spoke to them in parables. If Jesus only spoke to them in parables, then Lazarus and the Rich Man "must" be a parable. Thus it is not proposing an afterlife between death and the resurrection.

I fail to see why Jesus would refer to an existence of suffering in hell in the after life if there was no after life. No matter how you spin it, for Jesus to tell us the story of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus, in Abraham's bosom, no less, where Abraham was speaking even, goes to show that there is an awareness and an existence in the after life. Otherwise, the point of the rich man's request to warn his brothers of hell in the after life would be moot in Jesus citing the sinful condition of man for why they will not believe a man resurrected from the dead warning them of such when they refuse to heed the warnings from the Word of God.
Abraham speaking, doesn't that require a mouth? What about the Rich Man's tongue and eyes? Lazarus has fingers? Abraham has a chest? Where do we see ghosts with body parts. look at the passage closely.

22 And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried;
23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.
(Lk. 16:22-23 KJV)

The Rich Man died and in Hades. That statement equates Hades with being buried. People don't bury ghosts, they bury bodies. They're in Hades and we see body parts. Where do we find body parts? Aren't they in the grave? Do we find ghosts with body parts? Aren't spirit immaterial? That view just doesn't fit.


You cannot see two separate things in Job 12:10? I do. I understand your point of view but just saying I can read 2 different things in that verse whereas you don't.
I see the soul and the breath or ruach. God holds the life of every living thing. He also holds the breath of every living thing. The point is that no life is ultimately over unless God ends it.
In the Great White Throne Judgment, unbelievers will be resurrected and judged before cast into the lake of fire to burn forever which is the second death i.e. eternal torment.
There are problem here. If the second death is eternal torment, when was the first time people suffered eternal torment? And, if they did suffer eternal torment, how did they get out of it to suffer a second one? And, if they suffer a second one, the first wasn't eternal. See, it doesn't make sense. For something to be the second, it has to be like the first. Two different things aren't the first and second something. My screwdriver is not my second hammer. My second hammer has to be a hammer as the first is a hammer or it's not the second. Therefore, for the Lake of Fire to be the second death, it must be like the first death. We know that the first death is the physical death of the body. Therefore the second one must be the same, or it's not the second.
Since hell and death and the sea had to give up the deads, then there is an existence after death for them to give them up.
That doesn't follow. If they give up the dead, then they're dead. It doesn't say they gave up the living.
 
The problem there is that the idea of a subterranean underworld doesn't work in many passages. The grave works in all of them. Thus, the grave is the correct definition, not a subterranean underworld. Just because a concept can be forced into Scripture doesn't mean that's what Scriptures teach. I've already explained this parable. I gave Mathew's words saying that Jesus "only" spoke to them in parables. If Jesus only spoke to them in parables, then Lazarus and the Rich Man "must" be a parable. Thus it is not proposing an afterlife between death and the resurrection.
Well I disagree simply because scripture did not identify it as a parable and the account of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus is a true story for Him to refer to a real life person named Abraham to solidify that story in real after life in the reality they are living in.
Abraham speaking, doesn't that require a mouth? What about the Rich Man's tongue and eyes? Lazarus has fingers? Abraham has a chest? Where do we see ghosts with body parts. look at the passage closely.

22 And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried;
23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.
(Lk. 16:22-23 KJV)

The Rich Man died and in Hades. That statement equates Hades with being buried. People don't bury ghosts, they bury bodies. They're in Hades and we see body parts. Where do we find body parts? Aren't they in the grave? Do we find ghosts with body parts? Aren't spirit immaterial? That view just doesn't fit.
Only because you have a problem seeing spirits identifying with the bodies they once inhabit thus having spiritual bodies from which they speak and feel in order to suffer.

Let me ask you this; Did Jesus descended to hell or not?

Revelation 1: 17 And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
18 I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.

Ephesians 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)

Did Jesus preached to those in prison or not?

1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
20 Which sometime were disobedient,

I know your unbelief in the afterlife will have you interpret those passages to mean something else, but consider how the apostle John got the Book of Revelation.

Revelation 1:9 I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.
12 And I turned to see the voice that spake with me. And being turned, I saw seven golden candlesticks;

Paul testified indirectly of the apostle John and the Book of Revelation.

2 Corinthians 12:1 It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord.
2 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven.
3 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;)
4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.

Although Paul did write this below;

1 Corinthians 15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

Why would Paul entertain the notion that the apostle John may have been taken by his spirit to Heaven as being out of the body if that could never be true?

I see the soul and the breath or ruach. God holds the life of every living thing. He also holds the breath of every living thing. The point is that no life is ultimately over unless God ends it.
According to the plain account of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus, judgment comes after death and that judgment is immediate.
There are problem here. If the second death is eternal torment, when was the first time people suffered eternal torment?
The second death is the final judgment, and so it is a sure thing when hell gave up the spirits of the dead to be resurrected and then judged where their eternal bodies will go to, the eternal torment will be worse than ever before.
And, if they did suffer eternal torment, how did they get out of it to suffer a second one? And, if they suffer a second one, the first wasn't eternal. See, it doesn't make sense. For something to be the second, it has to be like the first. Two different things aren't the first and second something. My screwdriver is not my second hammer. My second hammer has to be a hammer as the first is a hammer or it's not the second. Therefore, for the Lake of Fire to be the second death, it must be like the first death. We know that the first death is the physical death of the body. Therefore the second one must be the same, or it's not the second.
The difference between the two eternal torment is now in that resurrected eternal state at the Great White Throne Judgment, they are cast into the lake of fire to burn forever as an even worse eternal state to be tormented eternally in.
That doesn't follow. If they give up the dead, then they're dead. It doesn't say they gave up the living.
In according to your unbelief that there is no awareness in the afterlife, for why you are taking the dead as limiting it to the corpse and not the spirit of the man hence the dead of that corpse.

Mayhap I did a disservice to you by not including verse 6 in my earlier posts towards this discussion.

2 Corinthians 5:6 Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord:
7 (For we walk by faith, not by sight:)
8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.

In the plainness of the language that is written without losing yourself in the Greek or the commas or the commentaries that strain against the gnat, the Lord has ascended to Heaven of Whom we are absent of while in this body and yet when we are absent from this body down here, we are present with the Lord in Heaven, awaiting for our resurrection at the pre great tribulation rapture event should we qualify, but if not, then the saints have to wait until after the great tribulation until the number of the saints left behind die to join them in Heaven to await for their resurrection after the great tribulation.

Revelation 6:9 And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:
10 And they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth?
11 And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a little season, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled

Here, the spirits of the dead are asking question on how much longer they need to wait as well as asking the Lord for vengeance and yet to do so requires a mouth. So obviously the living cannot touch nor feel a spirit of the dead in the land of the living, unless speaking through a medium, but in the realm of the afterlife, I can see how Jesus story of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus as being a true story for Him to include the historical person like Abraham's spirit in it.

You cannot say the apostle John was speaking a parable here, but I suppose if you continue to hold to your belief against what is plainly written, it is possible. I surely hope the Lord helps you see the truth in His words soon.
 
Well I disagree simply because scripture did not identify it as a parable and the account of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus is a true story for Him to refer to a real life person named Abraham to solidify that story in real after life in the reality they are living in.
Ok. you're saying that you disagree because Luke didn't write his gospel the way you believe he should have, correct? That's not a Biblical basis. Also, we don't know if Jesus said it was a parable or not. We just know what Luke wrote. Maybe he left that part out. John said that Jesus did many things. So much that if it was all written down he supposed the world couldn't hold the books.

And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen. (Jn. 21:25 KJV)
Only because you have a problem seeing spirits identifying with the bodies they once inhabit thus having spiritual bodies from which they speak and feel in order to suffer.
Not at all. I've asked you repeatedly to show us where these teachings are that you are talking about. You've refused. Here again, you're talking about spirits inhabiting bodies. If man is a spirit you should be able to prove that from Scripture. You've not done so. You've asserted it as fact. It's not fact. We've discussed these passages and I've given you other possible understandings that fit with Scripture. For the most part you haven't addressed them. Instead you moved on to something else. I've shown repeatedly that a bit of what you've said doesn't fit with Scripture. I showed twice where Mathew writes that Jesus only spoke to them in parables. Here's the case, Mathew said Jesus only spoke to them in parables. So here are our possible options, 1. this is a parable, 2. Mathew is wrong. 3. the English or Greek texts are wrong. If we believe the Bible is without error, we only have one option, this is a parable. You've refused to believe that. I've been accused of not accepting God's word. What do we have here? Unless you can show another way of understanding this passage from Mathew, we have to conclude this statement is accurate and true and that it is a parable. Again, you reject this idea.
Let me ask you this; Did Jesus descended to hell or not?
Jesus went into the grave.
Revelation 1: 17 And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
18 I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.

Ephesians 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)

Did Jesus preached to those in prison or not?
I already addressed this. Psalm 68. He's talking about bringing people out of the tomb. We saw this when Jesus arose.

51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;
52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many. (Matt. 27:51-53 KJV)

Notice it was bodies that came out of the grave after Jesus resurrected. There is nothing here or in Psalm 68 about Jesus leading ghosts out of a subterranean underworld.
1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
20 Which sometime were disobedient,

I know your unbelief in the afterlife will have you interpret those passages to mean something else, but consider how the apostle John got the Book of Revelation.
Look at the word order. First Christ suffered for sins, then was put to death, then quickened by the Spirit, then preached. Jesus wasn't a ghost preaching to other ghosts. He was resurrected when He made a proclamation to angels and demons who were disobedient in Noah's day.
Revelation 1:9 I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.
12 And I turned to see the voice that spake with me. And being turned, I saw seven golden candlesticks;

Paul testified indirectly of the apostle John and the Book of Revelation.

2 Corinthians 12:1 It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord.
2 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven.
3 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;)
4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
Firstly, John hadn't been caught up when Paul wrote that. How could he be referring to John? Secondly, you said that Paradise was a place in Hades. How is one caught "up" to Hades rather than "down" to Hades? Here, Paul equates the third heaven with Paradise. I thought Paradise was a subterranean place in Hades where the righteous dead, Lazarus, go. You're kind of all over the place here, It's getting hard to follow.
Although Paul did write this below;

1 Corinthians 15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

Why would Paul entertain the notion that the apostle John may have been taken by his spirit to Heaven as being out of the body if that could never be true?

Again, what evidence is there that he was speaking of John? Also, again, Paul uses "the body" as a metaphor for the church. Additionally he could be referring to visions which is what John saw.
According to the plain account of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus, judgment comes after death and that judgment is immediate.
Actually, it doesn't. Jesus indicated that the wicked would be judged and thrown into Gehenna. John said it was the Lake of Fire. The Rich Man was in Hades, not Gehenna, not the Lake of Fire. There is nothing in Scripture that teaches that people are judged and tormented in Hades.
The second death is the final judgment, and so it is a sure thing when hell gave up the spirits of the dead to be resurrected and then judged where their eternal bodies will go to, the eternal torment will be worse than ever before.
Wait a minute. Here you say the spirits of the dead are resurrected then judged. Just above you said after death judgment was immediate. Which is it. Are they judged immediately or after they're resurrected
The difference between the two eternal torment is now in that resurrected eternal state at the Great White Throne Judgment, they are cast into the lake of fire to burn forever as an even worse eternal state to be tormented eternally in.

In according to your unbelief that there is no awareness in the afterlife, for why you are taking the dead as limiting it to the corpse and not the spirit of the man hence the dead of that corpse.
You say I'm limiting death to the corpse and not the spirit, yet, you've claimed that the spirit doesn't die. That would mean you're limiting death to the corpse also.
Mayhap I did a disservice to you by not including verse 6 in my earlier posts towards this discussion.

2 Corinthians 5:6 Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord:
7 (For we walk by faith, not by sight:)
8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.

In the plainness of the language that is written without losing yourself in the Greek or the commas or the commentaries that strain against the gnat, the Lord has ascended to Heaven of Whom we are absent of while in this body and yet when we are absent from this body down here, we are present with the Lord in Heaven, awaiting for our resurrection at the pre great tribulation rapture event should we qualify, but if not, then the saints have to wait until after the great tribulation until the number of the saints left behind die to join them in Heaven to await for their resurrection after the great tribulation.
I've already addressed this passage. But, when you speak of the plainness of the language, remember, it's the language of translators. You're assuming they're correct in their translation. You've given me no reason to believe that assumption is correct. I find it rather curious that you seem to think the English is more accurate than the Greek when the English came from the Greek. I would encourage you to Goggle Daniel Wallace, a Greek Scholar, and watch a few of his YouTube videos on Textual Criticism. I think it would be an eye opener.
Revelation 6:9 And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:
10 And they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth?
11 And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a little season, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled

Here, the spirits of the dead are asking question on how much longer they need to wait as well as asking the Lord for vengeance and yet to do so requires a mouth. So obviously the living cannot touch nor feel a spirit of the dead in the land of the living, unless speaking through a medium, but in the realm of the afterlife, I can see how Jesus story of the rich man and the beggar Lazarus as being a true story for Him to include the historical person like Abraham's spirit in it.

Actually, they're not. The passages says the "souls" not spirits. You're conflating the two. They're different. A soul has a body and thus a mouth.
You cannot say the apostle John was speaking a parable here, but I suppose if you continue to hold to your belief against what is plainly written, it is possible. I surely hope the Lord helps you see the truth in His words soon.
It's a book of symbolism. We've looked at this already. I appreciate that you hope the Lord helps me see the truth, however, I would also ask that for yourself. What I've given you is right out of Scripture. I explained those passages and I addressed the passages you presented to me. Much of what you've claimed is contradicted by Scripture and much just doesn't fit.
 
Ok. you're saying that you disagree because Luke didn't write his gospel the way you believe he should have, correct? That's not a Biblical basis. Also, we don't know if Jesus said it was a parable or not. We just know what Luke wrote. Maybe he left that part out. John said that Jesus did many things. So much that if it was all written down he supposed the world couldn't hold the books.

And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen. (Jn. 21:25 KJV)

Not at all. I've asked you repeatedly to show us where these teachings are that you are talking about. You've refused. Here again, you're talking about spirits inhabiting bodies. If man is a spirit you should be able to prove that from Scripture. You've not done so. You've asserted it as fact. It's not fact. We've discussed these passages and I've given you other possible understandings that fit with Scripture. For the most part you haven't addressed them. Instead you moved on to something else. I've shown repeatedly that a bit of what you've said doesn't fit with Scripture. I showed twice where Mathew writes that Jesus only spoke to them in parables. Here's the case, Mathew said Jesus only spoke to them in parables. So here are our possible options, 1. this is a parable, 2. Mathew is wrong. 3. the English or Greek texts are wrong. If we believe the Bible is without error, we only have one option, this is a parable. You've refused to believe that. I've been accused of not accepting God's word. What do we have here? Unless you can show another way of understanding this passage from Mathew, we have to conclude this statement is accurate and true and that it is a parable. Again, you reject this idea.

Jesus went into the grave.

I already addressed this. Psalm 68. He's talking about bringing people out of the tomb. We saw this when Jesus arose.

51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;
52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many. (Matt. 27:51-53 KJV)

Notice it was bodies that came out of the grave after Jesus resurrected. There is nothing here or in Psalm 68 about Jesus leading ghosts out of a subterranean underworld.

Look at the word order. First Christ suffered for sins, then was put to death, then quickened by the Spirit, then preached. Jesus wasn't a ghost preaching to other ghosts. He was resurrected when He made a proclamation to angels and demons who were disobedient in Noah's day.

Firstly, John hadn't been caught up when Paul wrote that. How could he be referring to John? Secondly, you said that Paradise was a place in Hades. How is one caught "up" to Hades rather than "down" to Hades? Here, Paul equates the third heaven with Paradise. I thought Paradise was a subterranean place in Hades where the righteous dead, Lazarus, go. You're kind of all over the place here, It's getting hard to follow.


Again, what evidence is there that he was speaking of John? Also, again, Paul uses "the body" as a metaphor for the church. Additionally he could be referring to visions which is what John saw.

Actually, it doesn't. Jesus indicated that the wicked would be judged and thrown into Gehenna. John said it was the Lake of Fire. The Rich Man was in Hades, not Gehenna, not the Lake of Fire. There is nothing in Scripture that teaches that people are judged and tormented in Hades.

Wait a minute. Here you say the spirits of the dead are resurrected then judged. Just above you said after death judgment was immediate. Which is it. Are they judged immediately or after they're resurrected

You say I'm limiting death to the corpse and not the spirit, yet, you've claimed that the spirit doesn't die. That would mean you're limiting death to the corpse also.

I've already addressed this passage. But, when you speak of the plainness of the language, remember, it's the language of translators. You're assuming they're correct in their translation. You've given me no reason to believe that assumption is correct. I find it rather curious that you seem to think the English is more accurate than the Greek when the English came from the Greek. I would encourage you to Goggle Daniel Wallace, a Greek Scholar, and watch a few of his YouTube videos on Textual Criticism. I think it would be an eye opener.


Actually, they're not. The passages says the "souls" not spirits. You're conflating the two. They're different. A soul has a body and thus a mouth.

It's a book of symbolism. We've looked at this already. I appreciate that you hope the Lord helps me see the truth, however, I would also ask that for yourself. What I've given you is right out of Scripture. I explained those passages and I addressed the passages you presented to me. Much of what you've claimed is contradicted by Scripture and much just doesn't fit.
Seeing how you go to the Greek & Hebrew, and limiting the definition of The Greek word pneuma to breath, and then to commentaries that align with your beliefs, it is highly unlikely you will see as I do of the truth in His words by His grace and by His help until you ask Him for it. James 1:5-8

So we agree to disagree.
 
Seeing how you go to the Greek & Hebrew, and limiting the definition of The Greek word pneuma to breath, and then to commentaries that align with your beliefs, it is highly unlikely you will see as I do of the truth in His words by His grace and by His help until you ask Him for it. James 1:5-8

So we agree to disagree.
I used to believe like you do. It was the Bible that showed me otherwise. When I just let the Bible say what it says and stopped imposing my beliefs on it it became very clear. I no longer have to change the meanings of words. I don't have to force concepts into places they don't fit. The Bible works as a cohesive whole as opposed to pitting passage against passage.

Again, I encourage you to watch a few videos from Danoel B Wallce on Textual Criticism. I think you'll see that your English translation isn't as cut and dry as you may believe. Here's a video that just touches the tip of the icebergs concerning the things translators have to consider.

 
Oh, if you only knew how many forums like this I've seen. You are not the first person to find inaccuracies in scripture. I will point out that I am not deeply religious, but I am convinced that God is necessary for our world. You have no idea what miracles God can do these days. Even though there is not a single documented proof of his existence. You can read this article here Portland Pentecostal Apostolic Church | First Church Love Oregon. It talks about the first church in the world to hold meetings to heal people from mental trauma and to know God through the love of self and others. You can't imagine how well this methodology works.
Sounds Good!
 
Sounds Good!
Oh, if you only knew how many forums like this I've seen. You are not the first person to find inaccuracies in scripture. I will point out that I am not deeply religious, but I am convinced that God is necessary for our world. You have no idea what miracles God can do these days. Even though there is not a single documented proof of his existence. You can read this article here Portland Pentecostal Apostolic Church | First Church Love Oregon. It talks about the first church in the world to hold meetings to heal people from mental trauma and to know God through the love of self and others. You can't imagine how well this methodology works.
Do you align yourself with this methodology of already saved believers receiving the "Spirit of God" for "miracles" to happen when they lose self control & fall backwards? Matthew 7:21-27

The believer in this video below did not test the spirits but believed every spirit coming over them to be of God. 1 John 4:1-4 Proverbs 25:26-28 1 Corinthians 14:32-33


So in spite of the faith that Jesus Christ is in you 2 Corinthians 13:5, do you believe one can receive the Holy Spirit again and again and again after other sensational signs in the flesh? 2 Corinthians 11:1-4 & 1 Timothy 4:1-2
 

Subject heading:- How Can God Send People to 'Hell; Who Haven't Heard About Jesus?

Hello @MedicBravo,

Look up how the middle English word 'Hell' as it was originally intended to be used, as chosen by the translators: and then read the Scriptures with that in mind: ignoring the intrusion of Greek Philosophy and general misuse with which it has been tainted, and you will never ask that question again. :)


Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

The wage of any sin is death. No divisions like the Catholics “mortal and venial” .

The idea of original sin is not a biblical teaching

Anything that is not of the faith or power of Christ working in the believer that comes from hearing God through his word. . is damnable sin .

The commandment that when we are angry, we are not to sin or let the sundown on our anger applies. man’s anger does not bring about the kind of life God desires of us

Or do not look with lust at another woman or man , or do not murder. . same wage of sin never to rise to new life

Romans 14:23 And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.
 
Do you align yourself with this methodology of already saved believers receiving the "Spirit of God" for "miracles" to happen when they lose self control & fall backwards? Matthew 7:21-27

The believer in this video below did not test the spirits but believed every spirit coming over them to be of God. 1 John 4:1-4 Proverbs 25:26-28 1 Corinthians 14:32-33


So in spite of the faith that Jesus Christ is in you 2 Corinthians 13:5, do you believe one can receive the Holy Spirit again and again and again after other sensational signs in the flesh? 2 Corinthians 11:1-4 & 1 Timothy 4:1-2

Miracles (waking up on the green side of the grass or hearing the word of God as god works in ) are miracles nothing more.. . . .God is God nothing less

The idea of Charismatics is not a biblical teaching.

Experience is not the validator of the unseen things of God (faith) making noises without meaning and fallen backwards mocks the word of God .

Jesus the Son of man had what some might call an “out of Body experience” (Charismatic) having not eaten in 40 days weakened his mind. . the father of lies Satan taking advantage of the weakened condition worked in the mind of the Son of man showed Jesus all the kingdoms of the world and the glory of them without moving one inch.

The father gave words to his prophet Jesus three times to denote the end of the matter as it is writen, and again and again it is written the ungodly experience left the scene .
 
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