B-A-C
Loyal
- Joined
- Dec 18, 2008
- Messages
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I have no problems with this and believe likewise.
What I'm questioning is the obvious contradiction that comes from your reading of scriptures of your preferred modern versions of the Bible.
The modern versions of the Bible contradict the gospel of grace, and God's forgiveness.
The misleading modern Bible versions state that if you offend so often that its deemed "habitual", "practicing" sin, then such persons have not seen Christ, nor known him, and are of the devil, 1John 3:6,8.
This is a clear and obvious contradiction to the gospel of grace. It is this that I have been asking if you could clarify how you justify following such a contradiction?
Since you didn't tell me which version of the Bible to use, I'll just go with KJV, written in 1611. Hopefully that isn't too modern for you.
1 Jn 3:3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure.
How do we purify ourselvses?
(NLT)1Jn 3:3 And all who have this eager expectation will keep themselves pure, just as He is pure.
(MSG)1Jn 3:3 All of us who look forward to his Coming stay ready, with the glistening purity of Jesus' life as a model for our own.
1 Jn 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
This verse is in contrast to the verse above. Verse 3 basically says "act like Jesus".
Verse 4 says if you don't act like Jesus you are sinning.
1 Jn 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
We seem to agree Jesus didn't sin.
1 Jn 3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.
It does not say here, CAN not sin, it says DOES not sin. If we take this literally, it means if you ever sin even one time you aren't a Christian.
However this isn't a standalone verse. It is another contrast verse. It is contrasted against verse 7 below (which you conveniently left out)
1 Jn 3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
He that DOES righteousness is righteous, just as Jesus is righteous. Notice it doesn't say "he that CAN do righteousness". This is in opposition to verse 6 above.
1 Jn 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
Notice it doesn't say "he that commits A sin". The word sin is also used as a plural word. As in "living in sin" which means the same thing as "living in sins" except the second sentence is improper English. This is yet another contrast verse, contrasting verse 9 below.
1 Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
Again we see "doth not" or "does not" commit sin. (Not "can not") Again we see it doesn't say "commits A sin", it says "commit sin" as in multiple sins.
1Jn 3:10 In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.
This is how we know if someone is a Christian or not. By their fruit and what they practice.
No contradiction here. Even with King James.
You still haven't answered my other question.
What does John 14:15 and John 14:21 say in your Bible?
Even though following the commandments isn't what saves us, does God/Jesus want us to try and follow them?
Another thing to keep in mind, when the Bible is talking about "a sin" as in a singular sin, it precedes it with the word "a".
1 Jn 5:17; 1 Jn 5:17
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