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Why 1 John 5:7-8 Missing From Older Manuscripts
From this link above, is David W. Daniels explaining from that site for why 1 John 5:7-8 originally belongs in scripture.
Excerpts from that link are:
"The so-called "Majority" text was not really based on the majority of texts, but rather a relatively small number of manuscripts. The last person to try to find the differences between the majority of Greek manuscripts, Dr. Von Soden, did not collate more than 400 of the more than 5,000 Greek texts. In other words, what is commonly called the "Majority" Greek text is not a collation of the majority of manuscripts at all."
"The "Majority" Greek text is also the main Greek text used by the Eastern Orthodox religion. They had a vested interest in changing (or deleting) some texts. More on this in a moment."
"1 John itself is not in a large number of extant Greek manuscripts"
Thus leading into this;
"So why then is 1 John 5:7 in the King James Bible, but not in many of the existing Greek manuscripts? To understand the answer, we must look at the history of what happened shortly after the Bible was written. "
Why is this important? Because of the prophetic warning from the Father that there will be some who did not love Him to keep His words.
John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. 24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.
John 15:20 Remember the word that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also.
So prove or reprove that article with Him as we are supposed to prove everything by Him since those who loved Him would want His words we are to keep and live by and teach by.
From this link above, is David W. Daniels explaining from that site for why 1 John 5:7-8 originally belongs in scripture.
Excerpts from that link are:
"The so-called "Majority" text was not really based on the majority of texts, but rather a relatively small number of manuscripts. The last person to try to find the differences between the majority of Greek manuscripts, Dr. Von Soden, did not collate more than 400 of the more than 5,000 Greek texts. In other words, what is commonly called the "Majority" Greek text is not a collation of the majority of manuscripts at all."
"The "Majority" Greek text is also the main Greek text used by the Eastern Orthodox religion. They had a vested interest in changing (or deleting) some texts. More on this in a moment."
"1 John itself is not in a large number of extant Greek manuscripts"
Thus leading into this;
"So why then is 1 John 5:7 in the King James Bible, but not in many of the existing Greek manuscripts? To understand the answer, we must look at the history of what happened shortly after the Bible was written. "
Why is this important? Because of the prophetic warning from the Father that there will be some who did not love Him to keep His words.
John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. 24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.
John 15:20 Remember the word that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also.
So prove or reprove that article with Him as we are supposed to prove everything by Him since those who loved Him would want His words we are to keep and live by and teach by.