Welcome!

By registering with us, you'll be able to discuss, share and private message with other members of our community.

SignUp Now!
  • Welcome to Talk Jesus Christian Forums

    Celebrating 20 Years!

    A bible based, Jesus Christ centered community.

    Register Log In

Who Justifieth the Ungodly

Did you even read my post before you pasted it into AI you Muppet?

BF - " KingJ, GIVE ME A VERSE!!!"
KingJ - Sure, how are 50 that explicitly state A, B and C

KingJ - "BF for the last 100 posts I have asked for a verse explicitly stating your assumption of justification before faith"
BF - Let's dance for 100 posts and get AI to show me some moves.

You are the definition of a false teacher. Your message heavily misrepresents God. I would agree 100000% with God throwing someone like you into fire.

The Terror of Standing Before God as a False Teacher
@KingJ, thank you for the absolute meltdown. When a man completely abandons the Bible, refuses to answer a single legal argument, calls his opponent names, and tells them they deserve to burn in hell, he is announcing to the entire forum that he has lost the debate.
You didn't answer a single word of the scriptural math I laid before you. You just stamped your feet and screamed "AI!" because you are completely terrified of the black-and-white implications of your own admissions.

Let's strip away your emotional smoke and mirrors and put the spotlight back on your total evasion:

1. You completely dodged the "Faith as a Gift" contradiction.

You listed 21 verses admitting that faith is a sovereign gift given by God. I asked you a direct legal question: What is the legal status of an elect sinner five minutes BEFORE God hands them that gift? If they are under God's active legal curse, then your theology makes God an unjust judge who gives covenant rewards to objects of His judicial wrath. You didn't answer. You couldn't answer.
2. You completely dodged Romans 5:9-10.


The literal text says the elect were "reconciled to God by the death of his Son" while they were ENEMIES (which means before they had faith). The text uses an aorist passive participle—denoting a legal transaction fully executed and finalized in the past at Calvary. If the legal reconciliation happened 2,000 years ago while they were still unborn enemies, then their legal ledger was cleared outside of time. You have no answer for the text of God's Word, so you throw a tantrum instead.

3. You demand a verse matching your exact English syntax.

You keep crying, "Give me a verse that explicitly says 'justified before faith'!" because you don't know how to compare spiritual things with spiritual (1 Corinthians 2:13).

  • Romans 5:9 says we are justified BY HIS BLOOD.
  • Calvary is when that blood was shed.
    That is the explicit scriptural proof. If justification is by the blood, and the blood was shed 2,000 years ago, then the legal verdict was passed 2,000 years ago! You are demanding that the Holy Spirit write the Bible using your preferred 21st-century English vocabulary because you cannot handle the actual grammatical and historical math of the Cross.

The Bottom Line

You can call me a "Muppet" and wish hellfire on me all day long, kingj. Your anger doesn't change the finished efficacy of the blood of Jesus Christ. You can't answer the scriptures, you can't defend your conditional time-gap system, and you just got trapped by your own list of verses.

Faith isn't a work that activates a sleeping judge in Heaven. Faith is the spiritual eye given to a vitally quickened soul to look back at a debt that was already legally blotted out and nailed to the tree 2,000 years ago (Colossians 2:14).

Keep screaming and dodging. The forum sees right through it. Bow to the finished perfection of Christ's blood, or keep exposing your own system!
 
BF, you have again answered a question I did not ask and avoided the one I did.

1. Faith being given by God does not mean justification occurred before faith.

That is a complete non sequitur. God can graciously give faith to a condemned sinner, and that sinner can then believe and be justified by faith. Nothing in Scripture says God must first justify someone before giving them faith.

In fact, your own argument admits that believing occurs in time. You simply insert your preferred “legal justification” before it.

2. Your “double liability” argument confuses payment with application.

Christ's blood completely paid for sin. Amen.

But Scripture does not say that everyone for whom Christ died was therefore already justified before believing.

A debt being paid by a surety does not require the person to have already received every benefit of that payment at the moment the payment was made.

Christ accomplished redemption at Calvary. Scripture then tells us that we are “justified by faith” (Rom 5:1).

3. Romans 5:10 still does not prove your conclusion.

Yes, Paul says we were reconciled to God by Christ's death while enemies.

But you simply declare:

Reconciliation = justification
Reconciliation while enemies = justification before faith.

That is your theological equation.

You still have not produced a passage actually saying that an unbelieving individual was justified before believing.

4. And this is the irony.

You accuse me of relying on “soundbites,” yet after all these posts you still cannot produce the one passage I have repeatedly requested.

I have given you passages explicitly saying:

“being justified by faith” (Rom 5:1)

“all that believe are justified” (Acts 13:39)

“a man is justified by faith” (Gal 2:16)

You have given me passages about Christ's sacrifice, reconciliation, imputation, election and perfection, and then supplied the missing conclusion yourself.

That is not an explicit teaching of Scripture.

It is your inference.
@KingJ, you claim I am "inserting the equation" and making things up. Let’s stop talking, open the Bible, and let the Holy Spirit do the scriptural math for you. You want a black-and-white explicit teaching? Grab your calculator and look at this unbreakable legal chain:

1. Reconciliation = Non-Imputation of Sin
  • 2 Corinthians 5:19: "God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them."
2. Justification & Forgiveness = Non-Imputation of Sin
  • Romans 4:6–8: "God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven... Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin."
3. Forgiveness = Redemption
  • Ephesians 1:7: "In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace."
4. Redemption = Justification
  • Romans 3:24: "Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."
Look at the Ink, kingj!

This isn't my personal inference; this is the explicit, interlocking vocabulary of the Holy Spirit. Let’s do the basic legal math:
  • Reconciliation is defined as non-imputation (2 Cor 5:19).
  • Justification and Forgiveness are defined as non-imputation (Rom 4:6-8).
  • Redemption is defined as forgiveness (Eph 1:7).
  • Justification is accomplished by redemption (Rom 3:24).
They are not separate events scattered across a human timeline; they are the exact same corporate, legal verdict passed down by the Supreme Court of Heaven!

Now, let's look at the absolute death blow to your conditional time-gap system: Romans 5:10 explicitly declares when this transaction took place. It states that we were "reconciled to God by the death of his Son" while we were ENEMIES (before we had faith!).

If Reconciliation includes Redemption, Forgiveness, and Justification—and the Holy Spirit says it was all legally executed 2,000 years ago while we were still unborn enemies—then the elect were legally justified at Calvary! Duh!

Your time-gap theory requires a legal impossibility: you are trying to argue that a person can be legally redeemed, legally forgiven, and legally reconciled by the blood of Christ, while simultaneously sitting under an active warrant of legal condemnation and judicial wrath.

Stop playing semantic games to protect your conditional theology. You cannot break this scriptural link. Bow to the finished, flawless perfection of the blood of Jesus Christ!


 
@KingJ, thank you for the absolute meltdown. When a man completely abandons the Bible, refuses to answer a single legal argument, calls his opponent names, and tells them they deserve to burn in hell, he is announcing to the entire forum that he has lost the debate.
You didn't answer a single word of the scriptural math I laid before you. You just stamped your feet and screamed "AI!" because you are completely terrified of the black-and-white implications of your own admissions.

Let's strip away your emotional smoke and mirrors and put the spotlight back on your total evasion:

1. You completely dodged the "Faith as a Gift" contradiction.

You listed 21 verses admitting that faith is a sovereign gift given by God. I asked you a direct legal question: What is the legal status of an elect sinner five minutes BEFORE God hands them that gift? If they are under God's active legal curse, then your theology makes God an unjust judge who gives covenant rewards to objects of His judicial wrath. You didn't answer. You couldn't answer.
2. You completely dodged Romans 5:9-10.


The literal text says the elect were "reconciled to God by the death of his Son" while they were ENEMIES (which means before they had faith). The text uses an aorist passive participle—denoting a legal transaction fully executed and finalized in the past at Calvary. If the legal reconciliation happened 2,000 years ago while they were still unborn enemies, then their legal ledger was cleared outside of time. You have no answer for the text of God's Word, so you throw a tantrum instead.

3. You demand a verse matching your exact English syntax.

You keep crying, "Give me a verse that explicitly says 'justified before faith'!" because you don't know how to compare spiritual things with spiritual (1 Corinthians 2:13).

  • Romans 5:9 says we are justified BY HIS BLOOD.
  • Calvary is when that blood was shed.
    That is the explicit scriptural proof. If justification is by the blood, and the blood was shed 2,000 years ago, then the legal verdict was passed 2,000 years ago! You are demanding that the Holy Spirit write the Bible using your preferred 21st-century English vocabulary because you cannot handle the actual grammatical and historical math of the Cross.

The Bottom Line

You can call me a "Muppet" and wish hellfire on me all day long, kingj. Your anger doesn't change the finished efficacy of the blood of Jesus Christ. You can't answer the scriptures, you can't defend your conditional time-gap system, and you just got trapped by your own list of verses.

Faith isn't a work that activates a sleeping judge in Heaven. Faith is the spiritual eye given to a vitally quickened soul to look back at a debt that was already legally blotted out and nailed to the tree 2,000 years ago (Colossians 2:14).

Keep screaming and dodging. The forum sees right through it. Bow to the finished perfection of Christ's blood, or keep exposing your own system!

You still haven't answered the question.

I asked for one passage that explicitly teaches justification before faith. You have once again given me your theological equation and called it Scripture.

Romans 5:9 says “justified by his blood.” I agree completely. It says nothing about when an individual is justified relative to faith.

So after all this repetition, we're back to the same question:

Where is the passage?

The Terror of Standing Before God as a False Teacher
 
@KingJ, you claim I am "inserting the equation" and making things up. Let’s stop talking, open the Bible, and let the Holy Spirit do the scriptural math for you. You want a black-and-white explicit teaching? Grab your calculator and look at this unbreakable legal chain:

1. Reconciliation = Non-Imputation of Sin
  • 2 Corinthians 5:19: "God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them."
2. Justification & Forgiveness = Non-Imputation of Sin
  • Romans 4:6–8: "God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven... Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin."
3. Forgiveness = Redemption
  • Ephesians 1:7: "In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace."
4. Redemption = Justification
  • Romans 3:24: "Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."
Look at the Ink, kingj!

This isn't my personal inference; this is the explicit, interlocking vocabulary of the Holy Spirit. Let’s do the basic legal math:
  • Reconciliation is defined as non-imputation (2 Cor 5:19).
  • Justification and Forgiveness are defined as non-imputation (Rom 4:6-8).
  • Redemption is defined as forgiveness (Eph 1:7).
  • Justification is accomplished by redemption (Rom 3:24).
They are not separate events scattered across a human timeline; they are the exact same corporate, legal verdict passed down by the Supreme Court of Heaven!

Now, let's look at the absolute death blow to your conditional time-gap system: Romans 5:10 explicitly declares when this transaction took place. It states that we were "reconciled to God by the death of his Son" while we were ENEMIES (before we had faith!).

If Reconciliation includes Redemption, Forgiveness, and Justification—and the Holy Spirit says it was all legally executed 2,000 years ago while we were still unborn enemies—then the elect were legally justified at Calvary! Duh!

Your time-gap theory requires a legal impossibility: you are trying to argue that a person can be legally redeemed, legally forgiven, and legally reconciled by the blood of Christ, while simultaneously sitting under an active warrant of legal condemnation and judicial wrath.

Stop playing semantic games to protect your conditional theology. You cannot break this scriptural link. Bow to the finished, flawless perfection of the blood of Jesus Christ!



You have simply made the chain longer, not stronger.

You keep equating related aspects of salvation and then inserting your conclusion:

Reconciliation → non imputation → forgiveness → redemption → therefore justification before faith.

That final step is still your inference.

Romans 5:1 explicitly says “being justified by faith”, and Acts 13:39 says “all that believe are justified.”

So once again, you have given me a theological equation instead of the passage I asked for.

You haven't proved your conclusion. You have merely repeated it.

The Terror of Standing Before God as a False Teacher
 
@Brightfame52

 
Back
Top