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The real big problem with a non-OSAS belief

1. Something like an event, sure, He can foreknow that. But knowing if Esau would reject Him and go to eternal hell, no.
Why do you put a "limit" on an "unlimited" God in his "foreknowledge"?
 
God willing, all to be saved does not cause all to be saved.

Sure, but it does tells us that in some way God exempted Himself from being PARTIAL!

Partiality is PURE evil, I cannot believe you are pushing this nonsense. Do you not understand what partiality is?
 
There is no scripture teaching that.
Jhn_6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

Joh 10:3 To him the porter openeth; and the sheep hear his voice: and he calleth his own sheep by name, and leadeth them out.
Joh 10:4 And when he putteth forth his own sheep, he goeth before them, and the sheep follow him: for they know his voice.
 
Why do you put a "limit" on an "unlimited" God in his "foreknowledge"?

Because there are many scriptures pointing to it. You are making the exact same mistake Calvinists make. They define the A-Z of God actions and thoughts on the matter off of a single word 'Omniscient'.

You need to add many more scriptures to define God and see what the truth of the matter is. Please read my post # 282.
 
Sure, but it does tells us that in some way God exempted Himself from being PARTIAL!

Partiality is PURE evil, I cannot believe you are pushing this nonsense. Do you not understand what partiality is?
Just read the word.
 
Jhn_6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

And the father only knows who He can give Him, once we decide to serve Him, from true free will.

Rev 3:20 Here I am! I stand at the door and knock. If anyone hears my voice and opens the door, I will come in and eat with that person, and they with me.

Joh 10:3 To him the porter openeth; and the sheep hear his voice: and he calleth his own sheep by name, and leadeth them out.
Joh 10:4 And when he putteth forth his own sheep, he goeth before them, and the sheep follow him: for they know his voice.

Yes, once we are His sheep, we are His sheep. No argument there.
 
Neither are true.
2Ti 1:9 Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,
 
And the father only knows who He can give Him, once we decide to serve Him, from true free will.

Rev 3:20 Here I am! I stand at the door and knock. If anyone hears my voice and opens the door, I will come in and eat with that person, and they with me.
Once again, you are limiting God's foreknowledge when he knows all things before they happen.
 
Every person God saves has a purpose.

Sure, agreed. But also the unsaved. Scripture is clear that anyone can become righteous and when they do, He has another purpose for them.

Psalm 37:23 The steps of a good man are ordered by the LORD: and he delighteth in his way.

Luke 5:32 I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.
 
Once again, you are limiting God's foreknowledge when he knows all things before they happen.

Once again you are assuming you know God and this all because you know the dictionary definition of the word omniscience.

Take a step back and try understand how naive that is.

You and I cannot grasp God, if you think you can, tell me how He came to be....go floor is yours....

----------------

Scripture is CRYSTAL clear that God is impartial, and the only way an omniscient God can be impartial according to a human brain, is to believe that God would limit His omniscience. He does that with His omnipotence when He allows evil, something He utterly hates to take place, why not also with His omniscience.....

Acts 10:34-35 Then Peter began to speak: “I now realize how true it is that God does not show favouritism.
Rom 2:11 For God does not show favouritism.
1 Tim 2:4 God wills that all be saved.


And Deut 10:17, James 2:1-13, 1 Pet 1:17
 
God does not call the saved, but the unsaved, and reveals their purpose to them.

You are adding to scripture what is not there. John 3:16 and Rev 3:20 is a clear invitation to all to be saved.
 
No, because I know what the scriptures says about God.

Well clearly not. You also seem to not grasp that you are incriminating God as pure evil. Do you really not understand what partiality is?

Job says it is unthinkable that God would do what is evil in Job 34:12 and David says God is righteous in ALL His ways in Psalm 145:17.

These scriptures are not part of your bible it seems.

Acts 10:34-35 Then Peter began to speak: “I now realize how true it is that God does not show favouritism.
Rom 2:11 For God does not show favouritism.
1 Tim 2:4 God wills that all be saved.


And Deut 10:17, James 2:1-13, 1 Pet 1:17
 
Because there are many scriptures pointing to it. You are making the exact same mistake Calvinists make. They define the A-Z of God actions and thoughts on the matter off of a single word 'Omniscient'.

You need to add many more scriptures to define God and see what the truth of the matter is. Please read my post # 282.
Rom 8:29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
Rom 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

When did all this happen? What date and year?
 
Well clearly not. You also seem to not grasp that you are incriminating God as pure evil. Do you really not understand what partiality is?
If God wills all men to be saved, is that having partiality?

If people spend eternity in the lake of fire, is that God showing partiality? Is that being evil?

When God executes "justice," is that being evil?
 
If God wills all men to be saved, is that having partiality?

Of course not. Partiality is when He specially selects some for heaven.

If people spend eternity in the lake of fire, is that God showing partiality? Is that being evil?

Of course not. Eternal hell is a home for the wicked. You can't have them with saints in heaven.

When God executes "justice," is that being evil?

Nothing evil about justice.

What is your point of all this? Are you trying to insinuate that God is evil and you are fine with it?
 
Rom 8:29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
Rom 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

When did all this happen? What date and year?

He predestined all those that would repent of their sins to be in Jesus. He did not predestine a few He selected to be in Jesus.

The second part of Rom 8:30 is yet another cherry picking of wording. He calls ALL John 3:16 'the whomsoever will believe'', whoever answers the calling and opens the door Rev 3:20, those are who He '''justifies''.
 
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