Truthcomber
Member
- Joined
- Jul 16, 2018
- Messages
- 190
How did Christ grow in the spirit if he is God and God does not change?
John 1:1 (Greek text) In [the] beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and God was the Word.
John 1:1 Interlinear: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;
Me: It was the Word or direct expression of God himself that he communicates with man, for no one has ever seen or heard the invisible God (John 5:37, 1 Tim 1:17).
So who was it that declared that the Messiah was his son in Matthew 3:17? Wasn’t it his Father? I believe it was an angel of God acting as the agent of God just as an angel of God was acting as an agent of the Messiah in Revelation 1:1.
The Word of God expressed himself through a theopathy or christheopathy in the OT.
The word of God did not become the son of God until he became one with flesh in John 1:14. You cannot find the sons of God pertaining to man spiritually or the Word of God in the Old Testament except in Dan 12:3 where it is “one like the son of God”.
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)
Adam was called the son of God because he was a direct creation of God and had no human ancestors (Luke 3:38). Likewise the angels, who are made in the image God also had no ancestors and are called the sons of God. I believe that the seed of David grew completely in its bond with the Word of God (John 7:38) “The spirit was not yet____” and not the “spirit was not yet given” is the correct rendering.
Thus the Word of God, who is the direct expression of God and is God now has the human heart and soul of the Messiah in him (Revelation 19:13).
John 1:1 (Greek text) In [the] beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and God was the Word.
John 1:1 Interlinear: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;
Me: It was the Word or direct expression of God himself that he communicates with man, for no one has ever seen or heard the invisible God (John 5:37, 1 Tim 1:17).
So who was it that declared that the Messiah was his son in Matthew 3:17? Wasn’t it his Father? I believe it was an angel of God acting as the agent of God just as an angel of God was acting as an agent of the Messiah in Revelation 1:1.
The Word of God expressed himself through a theopathy or christheopathy in the OT.
The word of God did not become the son of God until he became one with flesh in John 1:14. You cannot find the sons of God pertaining to man spiritually or the Word of God in the Old Testament except in Dan 12:3 where it is “one like the son of God”.
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)
Adam was called the son of God because he was a direct creation of God and had no human ancestors (Luke 3:38). Likewise the angels, who are made in the image God also had no ancestors and are called the sons of God. I believe that the seed of David grew completely in its bond with the Word of God (John 7:38) “The spirit was not yet____” and not the “spirit was not yet given” is the correct rendering.
Thus the Word of God, who is the direct expression of God and is God now has the human heart and soul of the Messiah in him (Revelation 19:13).