The 2nd Coming of Jesus

[Arlyn]

• Mat 24:36 "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only."
• Mark 13:32 "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."

Does Jesus know the time of his 2nd coming? I was reading in a website that the word 'know' in greek means eido which in return means to 'not make known.' In other words, that Jesus and the angels DO know the time but they cannot reveal it, only God the Father. I have not made a solid decision on what I believe is the truth, so I would really like to know what you all think.

Keep in mind the verse in the bible which states that God and Jesus are one. This is what gets me the most confused!! Don't the Holy Spirit, Jesus and God have to be in agreement in all things if they technically are the same being?

Any feedback would be useful.
Thanks a whole ton!!!!!

 

[Ed]

• Mat 24:36 "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only."
• Mark 13:32 "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."

Does Jesus know the time of his 2nd coming? I was reading in a website that the word 'know' in greek means eido which in return means to 'not make known.' In other words, that Jesus and the angels DO know the time but they cannot reveal it, only God the Father. I have not made a solid decision on what I believe is the truth, so I would really like to know what you all think.

Keep in mind the verse in the bible which states that God and Jesus are one. This is what gets me the most confused!! Don't the Holy Spirit, Jesus and God have to be in agreement in all things if they technically are the same being?

Any feedback would be useful.
Thanks a whole ton!!!!!

Arlyn, Jesus doesn't know the time of his coming. Only God the Father knows.

As for your inquiry:

John 5:19 - Then Jesus answered and said to them, "Most assuredly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, but what He sees the Father do; for whatever He does, the Son also does in like manner.

John 5:30 - I can of Myself do nothing. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is righteous, because I do not seek My own will but the will of the Father who sent Me

What Jesus is saying here, or rather what he is trying to get across is the need for us to follow his example. Jesus does nothing without God, so Christian's shouldn't do anything that is not godly. Remember, Jesus often spoke in parables, and as a listener, you really had to understand what He was saying. Later on, his accusers blamed him because he made himself equal with God. By every right, Jesus was/is God, in the flesh

 

[Hisalone]

Keep in mind the verse in the bible which states that God and Jesus are one. This is what gets me the most confused!! Don't the Holy Spirit, Jesus and God have to be in agreement in all things if they technically are the same being?

Perhaps you did not mean it to sound like it, but this sounds like Oneness doctrine.

The three are not the same being, though they are one. That can be easily deciphered by the following.

Luk 3:21-22 Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also being baptized, and praying, the heaven was opened,
And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased.

As some have said, we don't serve a schizophrenic God.

We do know from Scripture that Jesus is the obedient Son of God, and submits to the Father's will. But we also know that Jesus as God's only begotten Son, is equal to the Father. Just as my sons are equal to me and submit to me (until they become teenagers :shade

As for your initial question, I have always believed The Father has committed only to Himself when these time will be, and being the obedient Son Jesus is, He will go when the Father says it is time. Remember, the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost each have seperate roles. This is another teaching altogether that we could study, however, I will not drift.

Good question, and I don't know if I am right. Maybe someone else has something else to share on this.

Hisalone

 

[Laudite]

• Mat 24:36 "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only."
• Mark 13:32 "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."

Does Jesus know the time of his 2nd coming? I was reading in a website that the word 'know' in greek means eido which in return means to 'not make known.' In other words, that Jesus and the angels DO know the time but they cannot reveal it, only God the Father. I have not made a solid decision on what I believe is the truth, so I would really like to know what you all think.

Keep in mind the verse in the bible which states that God and Jesus are one. This is what gets me the most confused!! Don't the Holy Spirit, Jesus and God have to be in agreement in all things if they technically are the same being?

Any feedback would be useful.
Thanks a whole ton!!!!!

Your website seems to have some greek issues. First, eido means to see, primarily, and thence to know. As a noun Plato uses it to say idea. Translations pass the laugh test- a word does not mean its opposite, that would collapse the language and linguistic meaning. Furthermore, it would have to be high poetry to use eido to mean know and then immediately this 'not make known' that appears to be the artifact of this website's imagination to bring out the difference in meanings. in fact, since the verb isn't repeated, it would have to be some sort of super zeugma that only this website could understand, since there's no context clue to changing meaning. Trust me, the greek says men don't know, angels don't know, only the father knows. Make known is a whole other word.

 

[Chad]

Mathew 24:35-36
35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. 36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only

GotQuestions.org Article (portion)

When Jesus spoke these words to the disciples, even He had no knowledge of the date and time of His return. Although Jesus was fully God (John 1:1, 14), when He became a man, He voluntarily restricted the use of certain divine attributes (Philippians 2:6–8). He did not manifest them unless directed by the Father (John 4:34; 5:30; 6:38). He demonstrated His omniscience on several occasions (cf. John 2:25; 3:13), but He voluntarily restricted that omniscience to only those things God wanted Him to know during the days of His humanity (John 15:15). Such was the case regarding the knowledge of the date and time of His return. After He was resurrected, Jesus resumed His full divine knowledge (cf. Matthew 28:18; Acts 1:7).

Matthew 24:36 clearly states that the Father alone knows when Jesus' return will be. Verses such as John 5:30; 6:38; 8:28-29; 10:30; 12:49; 14:28, 31; and Matthew 26:39, 42 demonstrate Jesus' submission to the Father as well as their Oneness in the Godhead. Yes, they are both God. But some things Jesus had apparently chosen to "give up the rights" to be privy to during His earthly ministry (see Philippians 2:5-11). Jesus, now exalted in Heaven, surely knows all, including the timing of His Second Coming.

(end article)

KJV Commentary

Verse 35-36 warn against attempts to set an exact date for Christ's return at the end of the Church Age (a warning unheeded by the Adventists in 1844, the Jehovah's Witnesses in 1916, and many others). To speculate that “day” and “hour” do not eliminate “year” is a gross oversimplification. The Father only knows the time of Christ's return since it has been set by His authority (cf. Acts 1:7). However, we are given a comparison to the days of Noah (and the Flood) which illustrate and prefigure the condition of humanity at the time of Christ's return. The last generation, like the one of Noah's day, is pleasure-oriented and self-gratifying by eating and drinking.

The reference to marrying and giving in marriage may refer to carrying on the normal course of life without heeding the impending judgment. However, the indication may even be stronger in that Noah's generation was judged as the result of the collapse of the godly line of Seth by spiritual intermarriage with the ungodly line of Cain's descendants (see Gen 4-6 for the setting of the Flood story). The drastic destruction of the godly families of Noah's day was due to a casual and indifferent attitude about whom one married or to whom he gave his children in marriage. Thus, Jesus' warning is that the last generation will also be so pleasure-oriented that its families will collapse (a shocking observation in view of the current failure of the American family with one million new divorces every year!).

 

[savo]

Matthew 24:36 "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only.

I have read that, This phrase is actually the Hebrew idiom for the "Feast that no man knows the day or hour", which is the Feast of Trumpets. This is the only feast day that you do not know in advance exactly when it is going to start because it happens on the day of the new visible crescent moon of the 7th month.

 

[Janette]

The Riddle of the Return

There is a really extensive study about this topic called "The Riddle of the Return" -- the author did not feel it was appropriate to profit off biblical study and so it is available free online to anyone who wishes to read it.

I think it would answer any questions you might have - you should be able to Google the book title and find it.

 

[savo]

There is a really extensive study about this topic called "The Riddle of the Return" -- the author did not feel it was appropriate to profit off biblical study and so it is available free online to anyone who wishes to read it.

I think it would answer any questions you might have - you should be able to Google the book title and find it.

Thanks for the link im nearly finished reading the e book. Im finding it very interesting

 

[Faithful Son]

Perhaps you did not mean it to sound like it, but this sounds like Oneness doctrine.

The three are not the same being, though they are one. That can be easily deciphered by the following.



As some have said, we don't serve a schizophrenic God.

We do know from Scripture that Jesus is the obedient Son of God, and submits to the Father's will. But we also know that Jesus as God's only begotten Son, is equal to the Father. Just as my sons are equal to me and submit to me (until they become teenagers :shade

As for your initial question, I have always believed The Father has committed only to Himself when these time will be, and being the obedient Son Jesus is, He will go when the Father says it is time. Remember, the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost each have seperate roles. This is another teaching altogether that we could study, however, I will not drift.

Good question, and I don't know if I am right. Maybe someone else has something else to share on this.

Hisalone

Hi brother.

I am not commenting on your post to create a debate, but I would just like to highlight the following.I am not aware of a "oneness" doctrine which you speak of, but I will search to learn more about it.

The scripture you quoted contains text that speaks of the Holy Spirit being manifested in the form of a dove. There is nothing there for me to decipher.

Furthermore, you stated, "we don't serve a schizophrenic God". Would you care to expand on that?

I have been diagnosed with schizophrenia in 2005 and I find it sad that people are so uninformed about the illness. Schizophrenia is not "multiple" personalities, as most people think and perceive. No, rather it is a state of mind where you are somewhat detached from reality, where you believe something that is not necessarily the truth, where you live in your mind and the reality around you is obscured to "fit" into the story that your mind creates.

Jesus is One with the Father as well as the Holy Spirit. He has said it numerous times in the Word.

I ask you to decipher this, why exactly did Jesus say "my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" when He was crucified? Isn't it because God left the body of Christ because He as the Son of God had to carry the sins of the world?

God bless
Faithful Son