amadeus2
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- Dec 20, 2008
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"And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him."Col 3:17
"For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them."Matt 18:20
Being "in the name" is much more than simply saying "in the name of Jesus" when we are praying. People say that there is power in the name and there is but the key is to be "IN" the name. At a neighborhood bar room people may regularly say the word, "Jesus" with their mouths but never are "IN" the name.
When a person is in the name completely isn't it that he has the mind of Christ? Do all of us have the mind of Christ all of the time? If we did, we certainly wouldn't sin at all, would we?
I believe that a person can be in the name without saying the name or even without knowing the name in his carnal mind. A number of people in the OT [at least, in a measure], I believe were in the name in a measure before any prophet knew what that name was in order to be able to speak it with his mouth.
Wasn't Elijah in the name when he was confronting the 400 prophets of Baal?
Wasn't David, a man after God's own heart, and the 'apple of God's eye', also in the name or in His name, when God was inspiring him to write many of the psalms attributed to him in the Bible?
Neither Elijah nor David knew that the name of the savior was to be "Jesus" or "Yeshua" or any other spoken name, which man has applied to the Savior in the flesh, unless it was Immanuel.
Yet, were not both of them, and others ,in the name or in His name long before the time of John the Baptist?
The following verse gives us more about this, does it not?
"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
Which show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another)" Rom 2:14-15
Were those not also in some measure "in the name" when they did the right things without having heard the spoke word, "Jesus"?
Paul also says something here on this subject:
"For as I passed by, and beheld your devotions, I found an altar with this inscription, TO THE UNKNOWN GOD. Whom therefore ye ignorantly worship, him declare I unto you." Acts 17:23
Isn't it also possible that among those Athenians, one or more who knew of that altar to the unknown God were also in His name at times before Paul talked to them that day?
If they were in the name, didn't they get there without having any written Bible?
If a 10 year old child living in mainland China has always had a tender heart toward people and his Creator and has learned to give his all to everyone with whom he comes into contact, who is to say that that child isn't in the name, simply because he has seen nor heard of the Bible? [What Bible did Abraham read?]
If that child has come into touch with God's Spirit without knowing anything about what the written Bible says, isn't it deeper into the name that the Spirit would lead him?
If the child did need more in order to continue growing, would not God?s Spirit be able to direct him to a person and/or to direct a person to him even as Philip was sent to the Ethiopian Eunuch?
"For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them."Matt 18:20
Being "in the name" is much more than simply saying "in the name of Jesus" when we are praying. People say that there is power in the name and there is but the key is to be "IN" the name. At a neighborhood bar room people may regularly say the word, "Jesus" with their mouths but never are "IN" the name.
When a person is in the name completely isn't it that he has the mind of Christ? Do all of us have the mind of Christ all of the time? If we did, we certainly wouldn't sin at all, would we?
I believe that a person can be in the name without saying the name or even without knowing the name in his carnal mind. A number of people in the OT [at least, in a measure], I believe were in the name in a measure before any prophet knew what that name was in order to be able to speak it with his mouth.
Wasn't Elijah in the name when he was confronting the 400 prophets of Baal?
Wasn't David, a man after God's own heart, and the 'apple of God's eye', also in the name or in His name, when God was inspiring him to write many of the psalms attributed to him in the Bible?
Neither Elijah nor David knew that the name of the savior was to be "Jesus" or "Yeshua" or any other spoken name, which man has applied to the Savior in the flesh, unless it was Immanuel.
Yet, were not both of them, and others ,in the name or in His name long before the time of John the Baptist?
The following verse gives us more about this, does it not?
"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
Which show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another)" Rom 2:14-15
Were those not also in some measure "in the name" when they did the right things without having heard the spoke word, "Jesus"?
Paul also says something here on this subject:
"For as I passed by, and beheld your devotions, I found an altar with this inscription, TO THE UNKNOWN GOD. Whom therefore ye ignorantly worship, him declare I unto you." Acts 17:23
Isn't it also possible that among those Athenians, one or more who knew of that altar to the unknown God were also in His name at times before Paul talked to them that day?
If they were in the name, didn't they get there without having any written Bible?
If a 10 year old child living in mainland China has always had a tender heart toward people and his Creator and has learned to give his all to everyone with whom he comes into contact, who is to say that that child isn't in the name, simply because he has seen nor heard of the Bible? [What Bible did Abraham read?]
If that child has come into touch with God's Spirit without knowing anything about what the written Bible says, isn't it deeper into the name that the Spirit would lead him?
If the child did need more in order to continue growing, would not God?s Spirit be able to direct him to a person and/or to direct a person to him even as Philip was sent to the Ethiopian Eunuch?
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