Dylan569
Active
- Joined
- Nov 4, 2024
- Messages
- 438
I fully embrace the following translating approach:
“A recent speaker has told of a project to issue 'a theologically conservative translation of the Bible.' Doubtless this is an appealing undertaking in the eyes of many. But the fact must be stressed that there is no place for theology in Bible translation, whether conservative or radical or whatever else. A 'theological translation' is not a translation at all, but merely a dogmatic perversion of the Bible. Linguistic science knows no theology; those of most contradictory views can meet on common ground devoid of polemic, agreed that Hebrew or Greek words mean such and such, and their inflection and syntactical relations imply this or that. These facts establish an agreed translation. Then, and then only, may the exegete and dogmatist busy himself with theological deductions from the thoughts of the Biblical writers. The Bible translator is not an expositor; however pronounced his views about Biblical doctrines, he has no right whatever to intrude his opinions into the translation, or to permit his dogmatic convictions to qualify or shape its wording. His one responsibility, and it is absolute, is to render the Biblical meaning as accurately and effectively as is possible into appropriate English.” Article from one edition of the RSV
This is why I like to use the 2021 NRSV Updated Edition along with others, because it strives to be academically accurate without being overly theologically biased. Yet, I detest the feminist perversions of that translation, as well as other choices based too much on current culture. What is proper to show one has modified a translation? Example:
“Now I want you to understand, brothers and sisters, the good news that I proclaimed to you, which you in turn received, in which also you stand,” (1Co 15:1 NRSVue)
The Greek reads “brothers”, not “brothers and sisters”. I’ll do the interpretation on whether in context the meaning is clear to mean both genders. So, I wish to correct that feminist perversion of the Greek text, but use the NRSVue and make it read:
“Now I want you to understand, brothers, the good news that I proclaimed to you, which you in turn received, in which also you stand,” (1Co 15:1 NRSVue)
Do I write something like (NRSVue Modified)? Or just leave off the translation reference? The problem I see what that is, when I see a text quoted without the translation reference, I sometimes want to know just what translation a person is quoting. Another change I’d make is on the hot button issues in 1 Cor. 6:9. I would change the NRSVue to read:
“Do you not know that unjust ones will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! The fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, effeminate, sodomites, thieves, the covetous, drunkards, revilers, swindlers—none of these will inherit the kingdom of God.” (1Co 6:9-10 NRSVue)
*I take “effeminate, sodomites” from the YLT, Alfred Marshall's Greek-English Interlinear reads as “the voluptuous ones, sodomites”, which is the same meaning. The New Jerusalem Bible reads “the self-indulgent, sodomites”, which is also the same meaning.
“A recent speaker has told of a project to issue 'a theologically conservative translation of the Bible.' Doubtless this is an appealing undertaking in the eyes of many. But the fact must be stressed that there is no place for theology in Bible translation, whether conservative or radical or whatever else. A 'theological translation' is not a translation at all, but merely a dogmatic perversion of the Bible. Linguistic science knows no theology; those of most contradictory views can meet on common ground devoid of polemic, agreed that Hebrew or Greek words mean such and such, and their inflection and syntactical relations imply this or that. These facts establish an agreed translation. Then, and then only, may the exegete and dogmatist busy himself with theological deductions from the thoughts of the Biblical writers. The Bible translator is not an expositor; however pronounced his views about Biblical doctrines, he has no right whatever to intrude his opinions into the translation, or to permit his dogmatic convictions to qualify or shape its wording. His one responsibility, and it is absolute, is to render the Biblical meaning as accurately and effectively as is possible into appropriate English.” Article from one edition of the RSV
This is why I like to use the 2021 NRSV Updated Edition along with others, because it strives to be academically accurate without being overly theologically biased. Yet, I detest the feminist perversions of that translation, as well as other choices based too much on current culture. What is proper to show one has modified a translation? Example:
“Now I want you to understand, brothers and sisters, the good news that I proclaimed to you, which you in turn received, in which also you stand,” (1Co 15:1 NRSVue)
The Greek reads “brothers”, not “brothers and sisters”. I’ll do the interpretation on whether in context the meaning is clear to mean both genders. So, I wish to correct that feminist perversion of the Greek text, but use the NRSVue and make it read:
“Now I want you to understand, brothers, the good news that I proclaimed to you, which you in turn received, in which also you stand,” (1Co 15:1 NRSVue)
Do I write something like (NRSVue Modified)? Or just leave off the translation reference? The problem I see what that is, when I see a text quoted without the translation reference, I sometimes want to know just what translation a person is quoting. Another change I’d make is on the hot button issues in 1 Cor. 6:9. I would change the NRSVue to read:
“Do you not know that unjust ones will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! The fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, effeminate, sodomites, thieves, the covetous, drunkards, revilers, swindlers—none of these will inherit the kingdom of God.” (1Co 6:9-10 NRSVue)
*I take “effeminate, sodomites” from the YLT, Alfred Marshall's Greek-English Interlinear reads as “the voluptuous ones, sodomites”, which is the same meaning. The New Jerusalem Bible reads “the self-indulgent, sodomites”, which is also the same meaning.