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Depart form me

Member
Matt 7:23 uses the word iniquity / lawlessness the original Greek rendering is anoimia its root word is nomas meaning not subject to or destitute of the law of Moses if this is true why would it say this if the law was really done away with as tradition teaches ? the only thing to take from this is it's saying depart from me ye who are destitute of the law please explain for the sake of others I know what it says
 
Loyal
This is always a can of worms. You will get a lot of different opinions. Here are some other translations, maybe it will help.

Matthew 7:23
(NLT) But I will reply, 'I never knew you. Get away from Me, you who break God's laws.'
(NIV) Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'
(NIrV) Then I will tell them clearly, 'I never knew you. Get away from me, you who do evil!'
(NASB) "And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'
(NAS77) "And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'
(MSG) And do you know what I am going to say? 'You missed the boat. All you did was use me to make yourselves important. You don't impress me one bit. You're out of here.'
(MKJV) And then I will say to them I never knew you! Depart from Me, those working lawlessness!
(KJV) And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
(HCSB) Then I will announce to them, 'I never knew you! Depart from Me, you lawbreakers!'
(GW) Then I will tell them publicly, 'I've never known you. Get away from me, you evil people.'
(GNB) Then I will say to them, 'I never knew you. Get away from me, you wicked people!'
(ESV) And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’
(ASV) And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
(AMPC) And then I will say to them openly (publicly), I never knew you; depart from Me, you who act wickedly [disregarding My commands]. [Psa 6:8]

ἀνομία
anomia; from G459; lawlessness: — lawless deed (1), lawless deeds (2), lawlessness (12).

My take take on this verse is the word "practice". We all sin sometimes, but there are those who "practice" sinning.
The word "law" means several different things to people. To some it means any part of the law. To others it means only the penalty of the law.
To yet others it only means the ceremonial part of the law. Often it's a combination of all the above.

1 Tim 1:9; realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers

Not everyone who thinks they are "righteous" really is.
 
Loyal
Matt 25:41; "Then He will also say to those on His left, 'Depart from Me, accursed ones, into the eternal fire which has been prepared for the devil and his angels;

Matt 25:45; "Then He will answer them, 'Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to Me.'
Matt 25:46; "These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."

Luke 13:26; "Then you will begin to say, 'We ate and drank in Your presence, and You taught in our streets';
Luke 13:27; and He will say, 'I tell you, I do not know where you are from; DEPART FROM ME, ALL YOU EVILDOERS.'

evil doers... lawless...
 
Active
Mine says iniquity.

Basically it means sin. When Jesus says the law is done away with it doenst mean the law is removed its just Jesus fulflled the law, and now the new convenant covers the entire law with his two commandments...to love God ..and to love your neighbour.

The isrealites knew that if someone sinned, they had broken the law of moses because that was what they went by. Those of us who are gentiles probably have more of a hard time understanding what sin is because we were not subject to the law of moses and were never taught them the way the israelites were taught. But we practiced sin anyway, we were lawless. Both jew and gentile were guilty of sinning, even when jews claimed they kept the law and were chosen ones to hear it and keep it. So that verse in the bible was relating to them especially, and the most hypocritical ones were the Pharisees.
 
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