Are we HONEST and UNBIASED enough to ADMIT what Moses personally

[daughterforligh]

<o> </o>
CAN we ADMIT what Moses and the NOBLES saw on the mountain?
<o> </o>
Moses and the Nobles saw two Gods (Elohim ??) on the Mountain.
<o> </o>
Exod.24
[1] The LORD (#2= Jesus the God of Israel) said to Moses:
You, Aaron, Nadab, Abihu
and seventy (70) of the Elders of Israel
come up to the LORD (#1 the Most High GOD, the Father),
and worship (delight) afar off.
[2] Moses alone shall come near the LORD (#1, the Most High GOD),
but the others shall not come nigh
neither shall the (common) people go up with him.
*
[9] Then Moses, Aaron,
Nadab, Abihu >> (whom Jesus called by their name)
and seventy (70) of the Elders of Israel, went up (the mountain)
[10] They >> saw (Jesus, #2) the God of (the nation of) Israel
and under his feet,
there was like a paved work of a sapphire stone,
and like it was the body of heaven in his clearness.
[11] and upon the nobles of the children of Israel,
he (Jesus) laid not his hand.
<o> </o>
They (Moses and company),
>> ALSO saw GOD (#1 the Father, the Most High GOD of Abraham..)
and they ate and drank (dined)


They are aware/ have knowledge of TWO.
David and the Prophets also wrote about TWO.
<o> </o>
Witness of Jesus:
John.14
[1] Do not let your heart be troubled
You (Apostles) believe in GOD (the Most High #1)
believe also
in me (#2;the Christ, the Lamb = the incarnated God of Israel)
<o> </o>
Witness of John:
Rev.7
[9] After this, (the selection of 144,000),
I (John) beheld and lo,
an expansive multitude of people,
whom no man could number,
from all nations (Israelites and Gentiles),
and kindred and people and tongues
stood before the throne (of the Highest who is the GOD of all nations),
and before the Lamb (Jesus, the previous exclusive God of Israel),
clothed with white robes and with palms in their hands.
[10] They shouted with a loud voice saying:
+
Salvation to (#1) our GOD (the Highest),
who sits on the throne
and Salvation to (#2),
the Lamb, (the Mighty God of Israel)
<o> </o>
The eternal Christian Doctrine from GOD,
through Christ and the eternally GLORIFIED Apostles.
<o> </o>
2 John.1
[9] Whoever transgresses (SINS)
and does not remain.
in the Doctrine of Christ (the LORD from heaven)
does not have GOD (the Highest).
He who abides in the Doctrine of Christ (the Mighty God from heaven)
has BOTH (the TWO),
the Father (#1) and the Son (#2).
<o> </o>
How about you?
Is that the word that is in you?
+++
+++
When praying call the Father: the GOD of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
Call Jesus, our LORD Jesus, our Helper, Our Shepherd....
<o> </o>
<o> </o>

 

[daughterforligh]

Moses met the TWO Gods of Christianity.
2Pet.1
[2] Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the KNOWLEDGE about GOD, (the Most High)
and KNOWLEDGE about Jesus, our Lord, (the Mighty God of Israel)

Catholics hate knowledge and call it Gnosticism.
Jesus, who came from the Father in Heaven, taught KNOWLEDGE.
Isa.28
[9] Whom shall he (JESUS) teach knowledge?
and whom shall he make to understand doctrine?
those who are weaned from the milk,
and drawn from the breasts.

 

[DHC]

CAN we ADMIT what Moses and the NOBLES saw on the mountain?

Moses and the Nobles saw two Gods (Elohim ??) on the Mountain.

Exod.24
[1] The LORD (#2= Jesus the God of Israel) said to Moses:
You, Aaron, Nadab, Abihu

Hello Daughterforligh.

May I suggest you get a hold of a Hebrew interlinear translation, then you can check the name or
titles of God that appears in the Hebrew text. To rely on an English translation of the Hebrew such
as most modern Bibles is not advisable.

For example in your quotation below Daughterforligh.

Exod.24
[1] The LORD (#2= Jesus the God of Israel) said to Moses:

The Hebrew word for God in this first verse is the tetragrammaton (YHWH), this is the Name of God
in the Old Testament. This NAME is not translated as Lord and never should be translated as Lord.
Here have a read of the preface of the NASB and see what the scholars have to say about the divine
name.

PREFACE NASB (1995 edition)
THE PROPER NAME OF GOD IN THE OLD TESTAMENT: In the Scriptures, the name of God
is most significant and understandably so. It is inconceivable to think of spiritual matters without
a proper designation for the Supreme Deity. Thus the most common name for the Deity is God,
a translation of the original Elohim. One of the titles for God is Lord, a translation of Adonai.
There is yet another name which is particularly assigned to God as His special or proper name,
that is, the four letters YHWH (Exodus 3:14 and Isaiah 42:8). This name has not been pronounced
by the Jews because of reverence for the great sacredness of the divine name. Therefore, it has been
consistently translated LORD. The only exception to this translation of YHWH is when it occurs in
immediate proximity to the word Lord, that is, Adonai. In that case it is regularly translated GOD
in order to avoid confusion. It is known that for many years YHWH has been transliterated as Yahweh,
however no complete certainty attaches to this pronunciation.

See how even the scholars are in error, YHWH is God's sacred NAME! And does not translate into the
English word Lord. The English word Lord is a generic term with a general meaning. Here is the
meaning of Lord; a name for God or Christ, a master or ruler, e.t.c. Lord is not a name it is a title!

The name YHWH was not pronounced by the Jews because it was the sacred and divine name of God.
The Jews will pronounce Elohim and Adonai without any reservation but never YHWH.

May I ask what translation you are quoting from Daughterforligh? You appear to have completely
misunderstood the text (Exodus 24). For the text (Exodus 24:1) does not say 'Lord' it says 'YHWH'.
This greatly effects the understanding that you are deriving from this text.

 

[daughterforligh]

Hello Daughterforligh.

May I suggest you get a hold of a Hebrew interlinear translation, then you can check the name or
titles of God that appears in the Hebrew text. To rely on an English translation of the Hebrew such
as most modern Bibles is not advisable.

For example in your quotation below Daughterforligh.

The Hebrew word for God in this first verse is the tetragrammaton (YHWH), this is the Name of God
in the Old Testament. This NAME is not translated as Lord and never should be translated as Lord.
Here have a read of the preface of the NASB and see what the scholars have to say about the divine
name.

PREFACE NASB (1995 edition)
THE PROPER NAME OF GOD IN THE OLD TESTAMENT: In the Scriptures, the name of God
is most significant and understandably so. It is inconceivable to think of spiritual matters without
a proper designation for the Supreme Deity. Thus the most common name for the Deity is God,
a translation of the original Elohim. One of the titles for God is Lord, a translation of Adonai.
There is yet another name which is particularly assigned to God as His special or proper name,
that is, the four letters YHWH (Exodus 3:14 and Isaiah 42:8). This name has not been pronounced
by the Jews because of reverence for the great sacredness of the divine name. Therefore, it has been
consistently translated LORD. The only exception to this translation of YHWH is when it occurs in
immediate proximity to the word Lord, that is, Adonai. In that case it is regularly translated GOD
in order to avoid confusion. It is known that for many years YHWH has been transliterated as Yahweh,
however no complete certainty attaches to this pronunciation.

See how even the scholars are in error, YHWH is God's sacred NAME! And does not translate into the
English word Lord. The English word Lord is a generic term with a general meaning. Here is the
meaning of Lord; a name for God or Christ, a master or ruler, e.t.c. Lord is not a name it is a title!

The name YHWH was not pronounced by the Jews because it was the sacred and divine name of God.
The Jews will pronounce Elohim and Adonai without any reservation but never YHWH.

May I ask what translation you are quoting from Daughterforligh? You appear to have completely
misunderstood the text (Exodus 24). For the text (Exodus 24:1) does not say 'Lord' it says 'YHWH'.
This greatly effects the understanding that you are deriving from this text.

+++
Jesus is our light not men.
Isa.60
[20] Thy sun shall no more go down; neither shall thy moon withdraw itself:
for the LORD shall be thine everlasting light,
and the days of thy mourning shall be ended.

Many skipped over the CORRECT Baptism.
Some Theologians taught rebellion against Baptism...

 

[DHC]

Moses met the TWO Gods of Christianity.
2Pet.1
[2] Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the KNOWLEDGE about GOD, (the Most High)
and KNOWLEDGE about Jesus, our Lord, (the Mighty God of Israel)

Catholics hate knowledge and call it Gnosticism.
Jesus, who came from the Father in Heaven, taught KNOWLEDGE.
Isa.28
[9] Whom shall he (JESUS) teach knowledge?
and whom shall he make to understand doctrine?
those who are weaned from the milk,
and drawn from the breasts.

Hello Daughterforligh.

Please read the following information and get back to me, as I am interested in how you interpret
the following.

Isaiah 7
14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear
a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

A virgin shall conceive and bear a son, Mary was a virgin and found to be with child.

Matthew 1
23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his
name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Mary was a virgin even when carrying the Christ, as the text above states. So if Mary is a
virgin while pregnant with Jesus, then it holds, that Jesus is not the biological offspring
of Mary. Joseph also was not the biological father of Jesus as the quote below tells us.

Matthew 1
25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son...

It is known that Mary and Joseph are not the biological parents of Jesus. This implies that
the genealogy of Jesus is not logically linked to the ancestry of Adam and Eve. Since Jesus
is not a human male by the standard definition, then the only conclusion that can be drawn is
as follows. In outward appearance Jesus is seen as human but within that outer appearance,
is one who has emptied Himself of divine title and become a man.

Philippians 2
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant,
and was made in the likeness of men:

Please take note that, Jesus first gave up His reputation or identity, and then was made in the
likeness of men. Jesus Humbled Himself in order to become a human male. Jesus was in the form
of God and equal with God, but surrendered that title, identity, or reputation, to become one of us.

Well can we prove that the male child was divine from any other scripture?

Matthew 2
11 And when they were come into the house, they saw the young child with Mary his mother,
and fell down, and worshiped him.

The Magi could not have been worshiping any human child, otherwise they would have been
committing idolatry. This act of infant worship also extends to Herod the king.

Matthew 2
8 And he sent them to Bethlehem, and said, Go and search diligently for the young child; and
when ye have found him, bring me word again, that I may come and worship him also.

Thus we have the act of infant worship extending to even the royal clan of Judea.

The reason I mentioned idolatry earlier in reference to the act of infant worship. Is that Jesus must be
God Himself in order to be worshiped by anyone. There is no other possibility available to us, the
God of Israel is the only entity that worship or veneration can be directed to. If you are unsure whether
only the God of Abraham, Issac and Jacob, can be worshiped please read the following.

Luke 4
8 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Get thee behind me, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt
worship the Lord thy God, and him only

Only the Lord thy God may be worshiped and Him only. This proves beyond any doubt that the
worship of Jesus was the worship of the Lord thy God.

 

[NoHype]

Here's one of the questions our Lord Jesus tested the blind Pharisees with, and they were not able to answer:

Matthew 22
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, "What think ye of Christ? whose son is He?" They say unto him, "The son of David."

43 He saith unto them, "How then doth David in spirit call Him Lord, saying,

44 'The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit Thou on My right hand, till I make Thine enemies Thy footstool?'

45 If David then call Him Lord, how is He his Son?"

How could David by The Spirit call Christ "Lord" if The Christ is David's son?

Note specifically our Lord Jesus asked those Pharisees about The Christ, because that means He was pointing back to Christ (Messiah) being mentioned in the Old Testament prophecies that He would come. Those Pharisees were familiar with those OT Scriptures about that. So was David, as he was not only a king, but also a prophet, and prophesied by The Spirit of Christ''s crucifixion about 1,000 years before it happened (Psalms 22).

In the Psalms David called Christ "my Lord". Now pay attention... and note our Lord Jesus' first question to those Pharisees:

Jesus' first question to them was what they thought of The Christ, who's son is He? They said "the son of David". And that because of the OT written Scripture declaring that Christ would come in the lineage of David. But they considered that The Christ was just to be another flesh born man like David as leader over Israel, and thus one of the long line of the flesh sons of David. In other words, they did not equate 'The Christ' with God The Father in any Deity sense.

So our Lord Jesus then asked them how could David call Christ "my Lord" if The Christ means just another one of the flesh sons of David and no more than that. A father of a son in the flesh would not call his own son by the title of "Lord". Yet David called Christ "my Lord" by The Spirit, which means a recognition of The Christ as much more than one of his flesh born sons, but also as David's Saviour.

This is why we are given the lineage of Mary in the Book of Luke, which is Christ's lineage from David's son Nathan. It's to show that God fulfilled the prophecy as written, but it also fulfilled the idea of The Christ, Immanuel God with us, being born in the flesh to die on the cross for the remission of sins for those who believe on Him as The Saviour The Father promised.

 

[B-A-C]

I notice there are a lot of added words and comments to many of the scriptures you posted.
None of those words you have emphasized or in parenthesis exist in my Bibles. The Bible warns about adding to and taking away from it.

Rev 22:18; I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book;
Rev 22:19; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book.

Israel only has one God.

Exod 20:1; Then God spoke all these words, saying,
Exod 20:2; "I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery.
Exod 20:3; "You shall have no other gods besides Me.
Exod 20:4; "You shall not make for yourself an idol, or any likeness of what is in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the water under the earth.
Exod 20:5; "You shall not worship them or serve them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers on the children, on the third and the fourth generations of those who hate Me,

Exod 4:5; "that they may believe that the LORD, the God of their fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has appeared to you."

It's the same God for Israel (and everyone else) in the New testament.

Mark 12:26; "But regarding the fact that the dead rise again, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the passage about the burning bush, how God spoke to him, saying, 'I AM THE GOD OF ABRAHAM, AND THE GOD OF ISAAC, and the God of Jacob'?
Mark 12:27; "He is not the God of the dead, but of the living; you are greatly mistaken."

Mark 12:29; Jesus answered, "The foremost is, 'HEAR, O ISRAEL! THE LORD OUR GOD IS ONE LORD;
Mark 12:30; AND YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND, AND WITH ALL YOUR STRENGTH.'

Rom 3:29; Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also,

There is only ONE God.

 

[NoHype]

I notice there are a lot of added words and comments to many of the scriptures you posted.
None of those words you have emphasized or in parenthesis exist in my Bibles. The Bible warns about adding to and taking away from it.

What you noticed me doing is 'paraphrasing', like this;

"So our Lord Jesus then asked them how could David call Christ "my Lord" if The Christ means just another one of the flesh sons of David and no more than that. A father of a son in the flesh would not call his own son by the title of "Lord". Yet David called Christ "my Lord" by The Spirit, which means a recognition of The Christ as much more than one of his flesh born sons, but also as David's Saviour."

A paraphrase is not a direct quote. It's a statement of concept with putting it into one's own words. It's purpose is to make the 'concept' more simple to understand. So I did NOT leave the 'concept' or 'idea' our Lord Jesus was showing us there by His question to those Pharisees. My paraphrase shows understanding of His concept of what He said to them.

So don't ever go to a Christian Church and listen to a preacher if you don't like someone doing that, because when they expound upon a Bible verse with giving examples, analogies, etc., to try and make the passage easier to understand, they are PARAPHRASING.

Also, if you own a Bible translation like The Living Bible, throw it away, because it is a 'paraphrased' Bible translation!

Obviously then, as followers of Christ Jesus, we are not just to be Bible verse quoting machines, but we are to actually UNDERSTAND the meaning and concepts God's Word is teaching. And once one properly has understood the concept of a Scripture, it means being able to put into our own words while staying aligned with the Scripture.

So if you're going to try and say what I wrote was wrong when I was paraphrasing, then you MUST first disprove the 'content' and 'context' of my paraphrase, instead of noticing that I was not being a Bible quote machine.

 

[B-A-C]

What you noticed me doing is 'paraphrasing', like this;

Sorry that message wasn't directed at you. Sorry for the confusion.

 

[RJ]

I find it remarkedy disingenuous when you intimate that we are not honest and we are biased when we don't see your twisted lodgic: You say that there are seperate Gods when all your scripture say one God! Did you learn that before or after your perfect, only one way to be water baptised salvation?

• "And God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness"...our means plural, all God and not Gods. Genesis 1:26 The New Testament, while fully recognizing the unity of God, emphasizes the fact of the three Persons.
• The Bible presents to us a Father who is God John 3:16 (God singular), a Son who is God Philippians 2:5-8 (God singular), John 1:1( more than one but both God), and a Holy Spirit who is God Acts 5:3; yet these are not three Gods, but one and the same God.
• You can't explain this anymore than you can explain the immaculate conception or the resurrection. You just know it through Faith. If you don't have this (God given) Faith, you will just deny it!