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A BLATANT ERROR IN THE NEW BIBLES

Apologies. Let me attempt to explain. I’m guessing your concern isn’t just about words being omitted or altered from the KJV, but also that the translators may not have been fully faithful to the actual manuscripts they used.
Not my concern
 
First and foremost, whose doctrine are you talking about in stating the following:
I am pointing out that the new Bibles have differences that can impact doctrine
[Colossians 1:14 KJV] "In whom we have redemption through his blood, [even] the forgiveness of sins:"

[Colossians 1:14 NIV] "in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins."

The New Bibles remove "through his blood". It is through the blood of Christ that we have forgiveness
and justification
First, you need to get rid of the idea that anything was removed from the Bible. All they did was use a different manuscript to Translate Colossians 1:14. It does not make one right and another wrong! Unless you are saying that the manuscripts used to translate the NIV were incorrect and not of God. Is that what you are saying?

Secondly, if what you believe is really happening, why would they include the following in the NIV; for which I've included the KJV as well.

[Eph 1:7 KJV] 7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;
[Eph 1:7 NIV] 7 In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace

You see, one verse alone doesn’t make a doctrine, brother! There may be differences in certain verses, but the context drawn from the manuscripts being used to form a doctrine is still there—if you’re willing to open your eyes and see it.

... :)

Oh, and please don't say the doctrine found in the Bible! Depending on the teacher/denomination/church you very well may find a rather varied list of doctrines believed, and how they are supported scripturally,
Our doctrine is found in Paul
Other teachers/churches may teach doctrine that is scriptural, but not dispensational
:rolleyes: Who is "Our doctrine", and what "Other" are you talking about? Please clarify.

Would you mind explaining what determines for you as being accurate and reliable?
I am not getting into that it leads nowhere
Do an examination on your own and make your own determination
Sure, it does and I do. I get the impression that you didn't come to break bread, but to accuse. As much as this is done on this site way too often by many here, that is not what we're about.

Just don't say, if it is not the KJV then it's not accurate. Because if I were to show you inaccuracies in the KJV to the original manuscripts being used,
We dont have the originals
We don’t have the original autographs—only copies, likely made from other copies of the manuscripts. So whether it’s the KJV, NIV, or another translation that draws from manuscripts differing in certain parts of the text, we can date those manuscripts, but they’re not the originals.

Note: If you search this site, you'll see you're not the first, and certainly won't be the last, to bring up this subject.
I haven't, nor do I intend to, bring up "KJV only" agenda
I will continue to show differences in verses between the KJV and other Bibles so people can be made aware of it and point out doctrinal impact. They can make up their minds as they will
Do it in context! Failing to do so makes you a liar.
You'll not further the Kingdom of God by doing what you are doing but only create division within the Body of Christ.

Part of me doesn't even want to answer this, in case you really don't know! If you didn’t know that there are many different versions of the Bible, each with its own set of books considered canon by various churches, you’re in for a surprise! This can be a project in itself for you if you didn't realize that.
I have no interest in the Apocrypha
That is but one!!! Which I really wasn't even considering of mentioning. Canon; which I'm sure you know what that means, is different depending on the church. Whether its Protestant, Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Ethiopian and it goes on and on. Some include the Books found in the KJV, while others leave out certain other ones, while even others will include ones not found therein. You do well to stay with the KJV! :)

Who is the Word of God?
Christ
I hope you aren't planning to say if we have Christ, we have the Word of God
Very good, and I would point out that we are in Jesus, and He is in us, and Jesus is the Word of God...

Keep in mind that this union is by grace through faith, empowered by the Holy Spirit. I can provide you scripture for each if you'd like.

With the Love of Christ Jesus, Brother Doug.
Moderator
Nick
\o/
 
Secondly, if what you believe is really happening, why would they include the following in the NIV; for which I've included the KJV as well.

[Eph 1:7 KJV] 7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;
[Eph 1:7 NIV] 7 In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace
The fact remains it isnt in Colossians 1:14
 
Sure, it does and I do. I get the impression that you didn't come to break bread, but to accuse. As much as this is done on this site way too often by many here, that is not what we're about.
I am here to teach others what i understand from scripture
 
Very good, and I would point out that we are in Jesus, and He is in us, and Jesus is the Word of God...
[Matthew 24:35 KJV] "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away."

The Word gave us his words, all of them
 
Secondly, if what you believe is really happening, why would they include the following in the NIV; for which I've included the KJV as well.

[Eph 1:7 KJV] 7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;
[Eph 1:7 NIV] 7 In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace
The fact remains it isnt in Colossians 1:14
So, the manuscripts used for it, are not of God then? Is that what you are saying?
Simple question considering you are so unbending to see that one verse does not doctrine make.
Who is "Our doctrine
Paul gives us our doctrine today. Our is the church, the body of Christ
Did God use Paul for this, or did he do this on his own? Also, when you say "Our is the church, the body of Christ" do you mean all believers irrespective of what church they attend? I ask this because there are some weird beliefs out there that go under the banner of Christianity.

what "Other" are you talking about? Please clarify.
Churches that teach for doctrine what was commanded Israel, not the body of Christ. They teach water baptism as an example. Paul never commands water baptism
You need to rewrite the first part. Not very clear. As far as Water Baptism, did not Jesus ask us to in Matthew 28:19 or are you referring to something else?

Sure, it does and I do. I get the impression that you didn't come to break bread, but to accuse. As much as this is done on this site way too often by many here, that is not what we're about.
I am here to teach others what i understand from scripture
And your bona fide to teach is what?

Do it in context! Failing to do so makes you a liar.
You dont need context to see a word isnt there
It's also pretty clear that the translators of Bibles didn't all use the same manuscripts. What makes one wrong and another right whether one word is included or excluded?

Very good, and I would point out that we are in Jesus, and He is in us, and Jesus is the Word of God...
[Matthew 24:35 KJV] "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away."

The Word gave us his words, all of them
Context
Jesus was speaking about what specifically in this chapter?
Also, your reasoning leaves me to ask What about Paul's words?

With the Love of Christ Jesus.
Moderator
Nick
\o/
 
So, the manuscripts used for it, are not of God then? Is that what you are saying?
Simple question considering you are so unbending to see that one verse does not doctrine make.
Just saying the blood has been removed from the verse
 
"Our is the church, the body of Christ" do you mean all believers irrespective of what church they attend? I
Anyone who believes Paul's gospel of the blood redemption by the cross and believing Christ died for our sins and rose for our justification
 
You need to rewrite the first part. Not very clear. As far as Water Baptism, did not Jesus ask us to in Matthew 28:19 or are you referring to something else?
Jesus didnt command Matthew 28:19 for us the body of Christ. He commanded the twelve
 
And your bona fide to teach is what?
[2 Timothy 2:2 KJV] "And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also." ********* Anyone can teach if they are faithful to teach what Paul teaches
 
You need to rewrite the first part. Not very clear. As far as Water Baptism, did not Jesus ask us to in Matthew 28:19 or are you referring to something else?
Jesus didnt command Matthew 28:19 for us the body of Christ. He commanded the twelve
So, if Jesus was speaking to the 12, then it was only to them, or to the Jewish people His words were meant for. Is that what you believe?

And your bona fide to teach is what?
[2 Timothy 2:2 KJV] "And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also." ********* Anyone can teach if they are faithful to teach what Paul teaches
So, who committed it to you? Clearly it was not Paul, or the faithful men he spoke of nor those they taught. So, what faithful man/men taught you?

It's also pretty clear that the translators of Bibles didn't all use the same manuscripts. What makes one wrong and another right whether one word is included or excluded?
You determine that for yourself
How did you go about doing that?

Context
Jesus was speaking about what specifically in this chapter?
[Matthew 24:34 KJV] "Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled."

Every word will be fulfilled and remain
Oh, I agree, but to go along with your reasoning above of Matthew 28:19, since He was talking to His disciples, it was not meant for us the Body of Christ.

With the Love of Christ Jesus.
Moderator
Nick
\o/
 
So, if Jesus was speaking to the 12, then it was only to them, or to the Jewish people His words were meant for. Is that what you be****** the mystery is the formation of the body of Christ and salvation without going thru Israel lieve?
Jesus only commanded the 12
There was actually more than Matthew 28 commanded them
Jesus gave us our so-called commissions ************ [2 Corinthians 5:19 KJV] "To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation."
[2 Corinthians 5:20 KJV] "Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech [you] by us: we pray [you] in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God."
[Ephesians 3:9 KJV] "And to make all [men] see what [is] the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:" *************** The mystery is the formation of the body of Christ and salvation without going thru Israel and the law and covenants
 
So, who committed it to you? Clearly it was not Paul, or the faithful men he spoke of nor those they taught. So, what faithful man/men taught you?
I am passing along what I have learned from teachers and scriptures. Check out my posts and the scriptures I present and determine if my teaching is sound
 
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