I know it is in the statement, but in what way is it so, for all believers sense spirits, and I am not saying it has nothing to do with that at all, but in what way.
Because if all believers can sense in the spirit which they can, then what about this:
1Co 12:10-11
(10) To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:
(11) But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will.
It does not say to all, and the Spirit divides severally as he wills.
Could it be to some degree a special gift of sensing in the spirit or of even actually seeing the actual spirit in people, is referred to?
Could it be a combination of both ?
If all believers can sense in the spirit, and the special gift of discernment of spirits are only given to some, then were is the differentiating line ?
I think we laugh a little too quickly at people, at times.