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SignUp Now!The KJV bible was translated from the Tyndale Bible . The KJV was from 1611. For 1600 years the Word was an "it". Now we see why God put stumbling blocks and stumbling stones in scripture.
What is the abundance of your heart??? Carnality, no verses.
Your an intellectual idiot. The only truth is the quoted Word of God.My heart is satiated in God's truth; yours is full of deceived nonsense. There is no carnality in what I said - truth is truth, whether it is found in Scripture or elsewhere.
Your an intellectual idiot.
The only truth is the quoted Word of God.
You are so emotional. Calm down.LOL! No...but just in case it escapes you, you act like an idiot and think you are an intellectual!!!
See! This is what I mean!!! 2+2=4...that is truth, and you will not find it anywhere in Scripture.
The more you post, the more the truth of what you are becomes evident to all who read your carnal gibberish.
Wrong again...more nonsense from the JW answers booklet that is filled with lies. I did not know that this site allowed JW's in here...experience has taught that they are so brainwashed by lies that its virtually impossible for them to get saved.
The purpose of getting saved is so that we can have personal intimate relationship with God and go to live with Him in eternity when all of this is over with...so there again you don't have a clue about what Scripture teaches in truth.
I AgreeSamson said "Going to heaven is not even the goal of being a follower of Christ. It is to become a son of the living God."
To which Shaolin replied:
John 1:12-13 "But as many as received Him (Jesus), to them gave He power to become the SONS OF GOD, even to them that believe on His name: Which were born not of blood, nor of the
will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."
Easy with the name calling as I run JW's off my property with truths they do not understand. Not intentionally, but those i've met so far have no teeth to chew solid food with and care not
what is written in the Bible they are only trying to make disciples of their own denomination to make themselves feel as though they are right which is what all denominations do.
Indeed organized Christianity is a stumbling stone that must also be overcome as all will teach a subtle but blinding form of self righteousness from belonging to the group.
Your particular view points come straight from Catholisicm but you do not see me calling you a Catholic.
You are so emotional. Calm down.
John 1:12-13 "But as many as received Him (Jesus), to them gave He power to become the SONS OF GOD, even to them that believe on His name: Which were born not of blood, nor of the
will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."
Easy with the name calling as I run JW's off my property with truths they do not understand. Not intentionally, but those i've met so far have no teeth to chew solid food with and care not
what is written in the Bible they are only trying to make disciples of their own denomination to make themselves feel as though they are right which is what all denominations do.
Indeed organized Christianity is a stumbling stone that must also be overcome as all will teach a subtle but blinding form of self righteousness from belonging to the group.
Your particular view points come straight from Catholisicm but you do not see me calling you a Catholic.
What do you do just make this stuff up as you go. Or have you got a hecklers are us hand book?? Who is Urantia?LOL! Just go read your Urantia book some more...
LOL!
BTW, you do understand that arianism is a false doctrine, right? And no one can go to heaven, or even get saved, if he chooses to believe that Jesus Christ is not Yahweh God in the flesh...which He Himself tells you to your face? I advise you to amend your false doctrine to the truth of Scripture, cause you are headed to a place where no one in his right mind wants to end up.
I went through alot of the same things. God separated me to write this b ook.I have been writing it for 40 years now. Its the revelations of Jesus Christ. The first 7 years I received over 800 personal revelations for me. Then He started giving me revelations to share with others. Which is what I am doing on this site. I have received over 3000 revelations in the past 30 years. I was going to have it published but they said they have a rule not to publish any book with more than 14% being scripture. And my Book is more like 90% scripture.I am saved by grace through faith that God gave me prior to my infilling with the Holy Ghost.
He has spent the last 20 plus yrs adding to my understanding.
I have laid hands on those who have been healed as He has directed me. Even sent me to do it.
I have cast out unclean spirits from those that were presented to me.
I have heard His voice many times telling me where to go and what to say and who to say it to.
I don't believe that bantering words with you will change your mind nor will your words change mine.
The great lie that God will send as a delusion to those who cannot or will not embrace the truth has them captured in the false doctrine you espouse.
Jesus is the only begotten Son of the Father, not His own Father. No one has ever begotten themselves including Jesus.
I'll share with you a short testimony:
One night many years ago I was woken from sleep at 3:33 in the morning and heard the word Jeremiah. This is how the Holy Ghost communicated with me in the early years. I knew
I was to look at Jeremiah 3:33 but I did not want to get up, so I was laying there, having never moved, and telling the Lord in my spirit that I would do it first thing in the morning
when I got up. My wife who was a good 3 feet away from me in a kingsize bed, said "Your not doing what I told you to do", she settled a bit and never woke. He spoke to me
using her vocal cords, what a chastisement that night was.
Needless to say I got up and looked for Jeremiah 3:33 and there is no Jeremiah 3:33 but there is a Jeremiah 33:3 and it states:
"Call unto me, and I will answer thee, and show thee great and mighty things, which thou knowest not."
Needless to say I did and He has for many many years, so like Paul who wrote the scripture to not forsake the assembling of yourselves together, I was set apart from the "churches"
of my area as they all threw me out as He continued to show me truths they could not or would not accept. However; most are unable to receive these things for they have not
earned the right to the hidden manna reserved for the overcomers. PS He decides who will overcome and who will not, thus He decides who gets the hidden manna and who does not.
"Many are called but few are chosen."
To end this I would only say that the early church had no New testament writings to read but yet "God added to the church daily, such as should be saved" so by grace were they saved just
as I.
And Paul who spent most of his time on the earth, after his conversion, in prison, didn't show up at a church 2-3 times weekly. Being a prisoner kinda stifles that option.
Just as John when exiled on the Isle of Patmos, gathering together is not an option.
Having witnessed the milk that is served up 3 times a week in the current churches, if that was all the food you received you would starve to death. But bring to them something God has
given you and out you go simply because they care not to consume anything other than milk. I was drawn from the breast decades ago!
"My sheep hear my voice and another they will not follow"
I went through alot of the same things. God separated me to write this b ook.I have been writing it for 40 years now. Its the revelations of Jesus Christ. The first 7 years I received over 800 personal revelations for me. Then He started giving me revelations to share with others. Which is what I am doing on this site. I have received over 3000 revelations in the past 30 years. I was going to have it published but they said they have a rule not to publish any book with more than 14% being scripture. And my Book is more like 90% scripture.
SEVEN CHURCHESYes it is strange to most that the Holy Ghost who wrote the Bible is the only one who can piece the jigsaw back together for you. All of the mainstream that are not spiritual at all want
to tell everybody you can't take it out of context, but yet it was written out of context. What was physical at one point in time is also an allegory of the spiritual for some of us now.
The perfect example is the overcomers challenges in Revelation 2 and 3. These were churches in the physical back then but yet each challenge speaks to every individual depending
on where they are in their own personal development. As each individual son overcomes he is rewarded accordingly. Most see this as only historical and cannot see the spiritual
aspect of it whatsoever. But then again the natural man cannot understand the things of the spirit.
I am saved by grace through faith that God gave me prior to my infilling with the Holy Ghost.
He has spent the last 20 plus yrs adding to my understanding.
I have laid hands on those who have been healed as He has directed me. Even sent me to do it.
I have cast out unclean spirits from those that were presented to me.
I have heard His voice many times telling me where to go and what to say and who to say it to.
I don't believe that bantering words with you will change your mind nor will your words change mine.
The great lie that God will send as a delusion to those who cannot or will not embrace the truth has them captured in the false doctrine you espouse.
Jesus is the only begotten Son of the Father, not His own Father. No one has ever begotten themselves including Jesus.
5. The witness of the Apostles:
John 1:1-3*
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 He was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were brought into existence by Him, and without Him was not anything brought into existence that was brought into existence.
1. First, it is important to know and understand that verses 1-18 are John’s Prologue to his gospel account. This is important because it needs to be read, interpreted, and understood as a prologue and not the beginning of his body of work. It is the introduction to the main theme of John’s work, and that main theme is the deity of Christ.
2. “In the beginning” – some try to make this opening phrase to mean the beginning of the preaching of the gospel, out of bias for the false doctrines that they hold to. There is no article before arche, therefore it means before there was any beginning whatsoever, which destroys the idea that it means in the beginning of the gospel (a favorite interpretation of unitarians and arians). This same meaning and rule of Greek grammar applies to the “beginning” in verse 2.
Therefore, John makes reference to the beginning before creation (creation is not mentioned linearly until verse 3). Since all things were “made by Him,” then He had to exist before He could make all things. Furthermore, the idea that “in the beginning” intends the beginning of the gospel, rather than in the beginning before creation, does not stand up under the weight of the Scriptural evidence. (see John 17:5, Eph. 1:4)
Furthermore, note the use of “en apch” (in beginning) instead of “ap apxhV” (from beginning) in John’s writings – “in the beginning” addresses ‘time’ before creation (John 1:1, John 1:2), and “from the beginning” addresses either the point of creation, or when the gospel age started (John 6:64, 8:25, 44; 15:27, 16:4; 1 John 1:1, 2:7, 13, 14, 24; 3:8, 11; 2 John 1:5-6).
3. “was” (in the imperfect tense, which conveys “a past continuing”) denotes absolute existence, not created existence in time and space. In this imperfect tense, eimi literally means “was existing,” a direct implication of past eternal existence. He was not speaking of ideas, knowledge, plans, or any other such mental acuity of God before creation or any other time – but of the substance of existing in some tangible spiritual form.
4. “the Word” – what is the identity of the Word? Unitarians rely upon extrabiblical (natural) definitions of the term and completely ignore semantics. Furthermore, John’s viewpoint in using logos as an identifier of Christ is from that of the Old Testament, not from that of Stoics, Philo, or any other philosopher of the logos. It is recognized by all scholars and theologian of any weight, that we find certain specific words (or phrases) in Paul and John where they semantically use words (or phrases) but fill them with their own intentional meanings.
The “Logos” is one of those terms found only in John wherein he intends the meaning of the preincarnate Christ, which he tells us in plain language in verses 14-15. John uses the term without explanation to us today, but which was well known to his readers – which is why when we ignore cultural/historical principles in our interpretation of Scripture, we assign false interpretations to the narratives in question.
Therefore, we must tackle this question based upon both historical and grammatical grounds, NOT simply grammatical alone – to do so would be a failure of due diligence on the part of the exegete. John tells us that “the Word became (ginomai – came into a change of state of being) flesh and dwelt among us” and that John the Baptist bore witness about Him saying “He who comes after me ranks before me, because He existed before I did,” in reference to His identity as eternal deity.
Both John the Baptist’s, and John the Apostle’s witness concerning Christ, is that He was the preincarnate Yahweh manifest in the flesh. This is the identity of “the Word” according to Scripture. Yahweh, who has always been, came into a change of state of being when He manifested Himself in the form of human flesh in the incarnate Messiah, just as the grammar of the text clearly states. This first clause, more accurately rendered, states: “In the beginning, He was the Word.”
5. In the second clause, John uses the preposition pros (proV) which basically means toward; but with the accusative, as it is in this text, it takes on the meaning of either in, with, by, or among, particularly with the accusative of person. Furthermore, it presents a plane of equality and intimacy, where two are face to face with each other. In this sense, a better rendering of the second clause could read, “and the Word was in God.”
6. “The Word was God” – again, “was” is in the imperfect tense, which conveys “a past continuing”) denoting absolute existence, not created existence in time and space. Here, according to the Greek grammar, John tells us that the Word has always been in absolute existence as deity – Yahweh God in the flesh, now come to be manifest and incarnate in human flesh. The way John phrased this part of the text completely destroys the false argument that the Word was only in the mind of God as His plans, intellect, or thoughts...because John tells us that the Word “WAS God,” not the Word was a figment of God’s imagination, intellect, or plan(s).
7. As to the grammar and word placing in the text:
The predicate is emphatically placed in the proposition before the subject, because of the progress of the thought; this being the third and highest statement respecting the Word - the climax of the two preceding propositions. The word God, used attributively, maintains the personal distinction between God and the Word, but makes the unity of essence and nature to follow the distinction of person, and ascribes to the Word all the attributes of the divine essence. [Vincent’s Word Studies, electronic version]
8. In verse 2, John continues the narrative; “was” is still in the imperfect tense, meaning an eternal existence in the past. “Beginning” is still being used by him as denoting eternity past before the physical creation of anything that was created. In this verse John is telling us that the Word (Christ) existed in eternity past with God before anything was created. Thus far, John presents the Word and God as two distinct persons sharing the attributes and nature of deity.
9. In verse 3 John tells us that the Word created all things, but we must look at the Greek to get the full and accurate rendering of the text: The preposition “dia” (basic meaning of through or throughout) takes on different meanings in translating based upon different grammatical cues. In the case of the present text under consideration, which is in the genitive, it takes on the meaning of “efficient cause,” the author or first cause of a work.
In this case, it does not mean “through” but “by,” (all things came into being by Him); otherwise stated as “all things were created by Him.” Since Yahweh God is the Creator, and the Word is also clearly stated here as the Creator, the reference is to Christ before He became flesh incarnate – God. The text continues in saying that nothing that has ever been created (come into existence) came into existence without Him, confirming and ratifying that the Word is the Creator.
The verb was (ēn) is in the imperfect tense which depicts continual existence, a continuous state, not a completed past. As Phillips says "It suggests the idea of "absolute, supra-temporal existence." Or stated another way, the verb in this tense "denotes neither a completed state nor a coming into being. It is appropriate to eternal, unchanging being. John is affirming that the Word existed before creation, which makes it clear that the Word was not created." (Morris). "The Word continually was" is the idea. This truth provides definitive proof of Christ’s deity, for only God is eternal. As Phillips says, John "does not refer to a start, but to an infinite state!" [www.preceptaustin.org/john_11_commentary]
Was (1510) (ēn which is the imperfect form of eimi) means to be and is the usual verb for existence. In the metaphysical sense as in John 1:1, “In the beginning was the Word,” meaning it had been before there was any beginning or existed before the beginning of anything; John 8:50, estín, in the present tense indicating." (Zodhiates) Notice John does not say in the beginning CAME the Word or BEGAN the Word, but WAS the Word. This verb is in the imperfect tense which speak of continuous action. In a word, the Word was continually existing! [Austin, abid]
Watch John's masterful use of the Greek verbs and Greek tenses -- four times in Jn 1:1-2 he uses the imperfect tense (ēn) of the verb eimi to say the Word was God (all of John's statements regarding His pre-existence are in this tense), but in Jn 1:14-note he uses the verb ginomai in the aorist tense (egeneto) (punctiliar, an instantaneous intervention, decisive, at a moment or point in time - the aorist usage here refers to some historical time in the past as the beginning of the new state) He became Man. So Jesus who always was God, became Man in a moment in time, doing so without ceasing to be God! John never says Christ became God but only that He was (always) God! [Austin, abid]
It is notable that the verb ēn (imperfect of eimi) is used by John in every instance where he is referring to the eternal state of Jesus (see Jn 1:1, 2, 4, 8, 9, 10, 15). One exception might be John's use of ginomai in an allusion to Jesus' existence before [implying His eternal state] John (the Baptist) (Jn 1:15-note). [Austin, abid]
As discussed above John uses ginomai in the aorist tense (egeneto) to refer to becoming something that one was not before in John 1:14-note where God became a Man. In addition to John 1:14, other uses of ginomai in the aorist tense (egeneto) in John's prologue are found in John 1:3-note (twice in the phrase "came into being"), John 1:6 ("There came a man, sent from God"), John 1:10-note ("the world was made through Him") and John 1:17-note ("grace and truth were realized [came] through Jesus Christ."). [Austin, abid]
Note that ginomai is also used in the perfect tense in John 1:3 (“has come into being”) and John 1:15-note (“He existed before me”), where the perfect tense implies a continuing existence of a new state. [Austin, abid]
10. Aside from all of the grammar, there is another aspect of John’s use of “the Word” in describing Jesus Christ, which is found in two Messianic prophecies:
Isaiah 42:6
I, Yahweh, declare You righteous, and I will strengthen Your hand, and will keep You and set You as a covenant for the people, a light unto the Gentiles,
Isaiah 49:8
Yahweh says this: In the time of favor I will answer You, on the day of deliverance I will help You; I will keep You and set You as a covenant to the people, to make binding the land so as to possess the deserted inheritances;
Through study of Ancient Near Eastern (ANE) covenants, we come across in particular, Suzerain-Vassal covenants, where the covenant that is being offered by the Suzerain (conquering) king, to the would-be Vassal king, is called in the prologue of the covenant, “the Word of the Great King...”
In Isaiah God speaks to the Messiah who was to come and says that He (God the Father) is going to make the Messiah to be His living New Covenant. There is no doubt that the covenant which God speaks about is the New Covenant, and He says that Christ will be the living embodiment of His covenant “for” and “to” the people. In other words, by calling Christ the “Word” in his prologue, John intimates a direct connection back to these two passages in Isaiah, where he is basically telling us in no uncertain terms, that Christ is the living New Covenant of God made manifest in the flesh. As such, every word that Christ speaks that has to do with doctrine, are aspects of God’s New Covenant in Christ and are, in fact, covenant doctrines.
John 1:18*
No one has ever seen God; the unique God, who is in the Father's bosom, He has made Him known.
This verse has some textual variants in the Greek manuscripts; however, the majority of critics agree that monogenes theos (unique God) was the original reading. The best and oldest Greek manuscripts (Aleph B C L) read monogenes theos, which is undoubtedly the true and original wording. Reymond points out, “The reputable textual critic must admit that the evidence points rather decisively in favor of an original theos.” [[1]] The “one and only God” has the least doubt in terms of manuscript evidence; all attempts to make the text say otherwise is to place your bets on shaky evidence.
According to the vast majority of scholars, theos is attested in the best Alexandrian majuscule and in the earliest available MSS manuscripts. Furthermore, the quality of the Western MS supporting “theos” is comparatively greater than all Alexandrian MSS supporting documents for “vios” (son). Given the totality of the weight of the evidence, both internally and externally, “theos” is most likely the correct word used in this text.
Regardless of which reading one takes, the force of the text is not weakened in its intended meaning – Christ is still deity. As for “who is in the Father’s bosom,” this related directly back to John 1:1 where we read that “the Word was with God.” We must also remember that from the very beginning of John’s Gospel, his purpose and intent was to demonstrate that Christ was God in the flesh, from the very first verse, unto the very last. For him to use “son” instead of “God” would have been out of character with the rest of his gospel.
The textual problem μονογενὴς θεός (monogenēs theos, “the only God”) versus ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός (ho monogenēs huios, “the only son”) is a notoriously difficult one. Only one letter would have differentiated the readings in the mss, since both words would have been contracted as nomina sacra: thus qMs or uMs. Externally, there are several variants, but they can be grouped essentially by whether they read θεός or υἱός. The majority of mss, especially the later ones, read ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός. P א 33 have ὁ μονογενὴς θεός, while the anarthrous μονογενὴς θεός is found in P א* B C* L. The articular θεός is almost certainly a scribal emendation to the anarthrous θεός, for θεός without the article is a much harder reading. [The NET Bible, online study notes]
The external evidence thus strongly supports μονογενὴς θεός. Internally, although υἱός fits the immediate context more readily, θεός is much more difficult. As well, θεός also explains the origin of the other reading (υἱός), because it is difficult to see why a scribe who found υἱός in the text he was copying would alter it to θεός. [The NET Bible, online study notes]
Scribes would naturally change the wording to υἱός however, since μονογενὴς υἱός is a uniquely Johannine christological title (cf. John 3:16, 18; 1 John 4:9). But θεός as the older and more difficult reading is preferred. As for translation, it makes the most sense to see the word θεός as in apposition to μονογενής, and the participle ὁ ὤν (ho ōn) as in apposition to θεός, giving in effect three descriptions of Jesus rather than only two. [The NET Bible, online study notes]
The modern translations which best express this are the NEB (margin) and TEV. Several things should be noted: μονογενής alone, without υἱός, can mean “only son,” “unique son,” “unique one,” etc. (see 1:14). Furthermore, θεός is anarthrous. As such it carries qualitative force much like it does in 1:1c, where θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος (theos ēn ho logos) means “the Word was fully God” or “the Word was fully of the essence of deity.” Finally, ὁ ὤν occurs in Rev 1:4, 8; 4:8; 11:17; and 16:5, but even more significantly in the LXX of Exod 3:14. Putting all of this together leads to the translation given in the text (“the one and only unique God...”). [The NET Bible, online study notes]
[1] Jesus, Divine Messiah; Reymond, Robert L., Phillipsburg, NJ; Presbyterian and Reformed Publishing Co., 1990’ pg. 306.
I'll share with you a short testimony:
One night many years ago I was woken from sleep at 3:33 in the morning and heard the word Jeremiah. This is how the Holy Ghost communicated with me in the early years. I knew
I was to look at Jeremiah 3:33 but I did not want to get up, so I was laying there, having never moved, and telling the Lord in my spirit that I would do it first thing in the morning
when I got up. My wife who was a good 3 feet away from me in a kingsize bed, said "Your not doing what I told you to do", she settled a bit and never woke. He spoke to me
using her vocal cords, what a chastisement that night was.
Needless to say I got up and looked for Jeremiah 3:33 and there is no Jeremiah 3:33 but there is a Jeremiah 33:3 and it states:
"Call unto me, and I will answer thee, and show thee great and mighty things, which thou knowest not."
Needless to say I did and He has for many many years, so like Paul who wrote the scripture to not forsake the assembling of yourselves together, I was set apart from the "churches"
of my area as they all threw me out as He continued to show me truths they could not or would not accept. However; most are unable to receive these things for they have not
earned the right to the hidden manna reserved for the overcomers. PS He decides who will overcome and who will not, thus He decides who gets the hidden manna and who does not.
"Many are called but few are chosen."
To end this I would only say that the early church had no New testament writings to read but yet "God added to the church daily, such as should be saved" so by grace were they saved just
as I.
And Paul who spent most of his time on the earth, after his conversion, in prison, didn't show up at a church 2-3 times weekly.
Being a prisoner kinda stifles that option.
Just as John when exiled on the Isle of Patmos, gathering together is not an option.
Having witnessed the milk that is served up 3 times a week in the current churches, if that was all the food you received you would starve to death. But bring to them something God has
given you and out you go simply because they care not to consume anything other than milk. I was drawn from the breast decades ago!
"My sheep hear my voice and another they will not follow"
Wrong...no where in Scripture do we find the false calvinistic doctrine that God gives people faith in order to get saved. There is only one passage that says God gives faith, and that is not saving faith but the supernatural faith as one of the gifts of the Spirit in order to perform supernatural works.
Either way, I can tell by the way that you put it that you have absolutely no idea what Jesus said here, particularly since you didn't give its address or context.
God starts out everyone with a measure of faith. That can only be used to lead one into being saved.Ephesians 2:8 "For by grace are ye saved through FAITH; and that(faith) not of yourselves it(faith) is the gift of God."
So we see clearly that you are 100% wrong.
What context would you like? He simply said His sheep hear His voice, I do, but I doubt you have.
Please don't respond to me as I have no interest in arguing with an unlearned child.