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SignUp Now!Many Christians do not understand what sin is. I will show you a verse from John's letter.
John 3:18 New King James Version (NKJV)
“He who believes in Him (Jesus) is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."
This is the full and final revelation regarding a definition of sin. Sin is basically disobedience, rejection of truth. Jesus was the very definition of TRUTH, to reject Jesus is to reject TRUTH. This is precisely what sin is.
To follow Jesus is to live in the spirit. Living in the spirit is absolute obedience to Jesus, He delivers us from all sin.
The habit of many in the church is to judge other believers based upon their own convictions and views of the Christian life.religious traditions .
What is the purpose of the law?To show us the need for a savior.Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures. And that he was buried. And that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures.
What is sin, is worthy question, ozell. Certainly the quote of 1 John 3:4 is relevant. You go on, however, to mention what you think some churches teach and then ask: is this correct? By the text you quoted, the answer would be to examine the Law to see if this be truly prohibited. You have the Bible, what sayeth the scripture? How do you read it? If the particular practices are not mentioned nor any uncontested generalization that might apply, then the point in question would be mute. Otherwise, if they are found prohibited therein, then they would be, by definition sin.
This reads dry, because it is. Is there not more to sin than just a prohibited act? Does the Bible not speak of a sin nature, dead in trespasses and sins, and of a deceitful heart? More over, of enmity with God and by nature children of wrath? Did not Christ speak of that which proceeds out of the heart? I think this is what David777 had in mind when he responded to your post. And the remedy of faith he points out in Christ is most defiantly of this wider field of meaning. You respond with a passage from the exodus wandering of Israel in the wilderness which Christ uses to rebuke the devil that shows us in fact that Christ fulfilled all righteousness for us in our place and that he was without sin. It too is a very relevant text in an overall definition of sin.
Next, you respond to JamesG who has fallowed David in addressing your question, "is this correct?" and also in pointing to the not dry, but rich remedy provided for the devastating condemnation that the law rightly ministers to every son of Adam. But here I am lost at your response. You take an interesting equivocation to the wording of the passage he uses. You appear to suggest there is contradiction in the scriptures "the third day" with "three days and nights", asking even if Friday to Sunday is sin. You say in your profile you believe every word of scripture, therefor I must have misread your reply. Going with that, I can only assume you are suggesting that the "arbitrary" church calendar is sin. If the calendar is not correct it is wrong. The Bible cannot contradict with itself, but I would expect it to contradict errant calendars. I suggest, if you have a definite question or objection you state it clearly and the people here will be happy to give an answer. The Biblical time notations involved with the internment of Christ has been satisfactorily answered for at least 1900 years, but then that is another question. That which is not of faith is sin, and faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. (Romans 14:15-23, Romans 10:17)
[ozell;179051]Is Good friday to Easter Sunday morning a sin? this is not 3 days and 3 nights
some believe it was a friday .some believe it was a Wednesday. some believe it was a Thurday.
In Matthew 12:40 He said, "three days and three nights," but in Mark 8:31 He said, "after three days." He referred to the same event in John 2:19 as "in three days," and on five occasions He said, "the third day." Matthew 16:21; 17:23; 20:19; Luke 13:32; 24:46.
is Good friday to Easter sunday morning 3 days and 3 nights.
do we obey Jesus voice when we keep Good friday to Easter sunday?
is this sin
Let me see if I can clue you in. You site 1 John 3:4, which is "a" definition of sin: then u ask what is sin: so then, by that definition it is merely an examination of the laws demands. And yes it is kind of simple, though a lawyer might smile at that; that is why I said to you, you have the scriptures how readest thou them. However, let me ask you: Do you not read the scripture giving other definitions for sin? I referred to Romans 14:23 and apparently you misses the other definition given there: it should have given you a clue. In the context the act that is sinful is not a law prohibited act, on the contrary the act is allowable, but the fellow, so lead by the example of the stronger brother and not of his own conviction, is never the less sinning, because it would not then be by his own faith (i.e. he did not know for himself that it was allowable by hearing the word--his week conscience was not yet fortified by scripture). Moreover, the stronger brother ought to have the attitude Paul mentions in 1 Corinthians 10:23 All things are lawful for me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but all things edify not. So what is the upshot of this? Any definition of sin the bible gives, since it gives more than one, is a narrower field of view than of all the definitions together.I have no clue to what you are trying to say. what is sin is a simple question?
This is a good example of a limited (not complete) definition, for your next question is:according to the word of God sin is the breaking of the law. 1John 3v4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law
And that is all that matters: I am treading over no legal boundaries, violating no written ordinance, therefore it is not sin/He or they are treading over a legal boundary there for it is sin. And what is the problem with that? The pharisees viewed plucking gran as harvesting and rubbing it in the hands as threshing, so they found fault with the disciples who did such on the sabbath. They also found fault in Christ healing on the sabbath, but they had not considered the emergency of David when he fled from Saul and ate the show bread which is not lawful for any to eat but the priests only, and he gave to his men to eat as well. So what is the precise purpose for the limited definition "transgression of the law"? It is meant to rule over human trials of prohibited acts and public disclosures that must be verified by other free men. There is no authority but God's word. But the field of view becomes a bit larger when we see that, "for whatsoever is not of faith is sin;" for with that as our definition, we can head the advice of Paul and intelligently care for our brother's state of maturity, without offense. In the new covenant as we walk with Christ, we do sin and he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. He receives us as we are and begins to perfect our faith; if we say we do not sin, we lie and do not the truth. The legalistic error is a self deception based on this limited view of sin, and has forgotten the other definition. It is important, John's first epistle is all about that. Legalism has no freedom nor mercy, and its sister error, perfectionism, has no personal conviction of sin in it at all, their eyes have a log in them, they can't see well.what law is being broken?
according to the words of Jesus he said he would be in the grave for 3 days and 3 nights
is Good friday to Easter sunday morning 3 days and 3 nights.
do we obey Jesus voice when we keep Good friday to Easter sunday?
is this sin
the bible defintion of sin is the transgression of the law.
1John 3v4
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law
"Every one that practiseth sin, practiseth lawlessness; for sin is lawlessness, this is the correct rendering. The definition of sin as "transgression of the law" is misleading and incorrect. Before there ever was a law, sin was in the world (Romans 5:12, etc.); how then can sin be the transgression of the law?
Sin was in the world 2500 years before the Law. Already existing sin caused the Law’s
James 4:17----" Therefore to him that knoweth to do good, and doeth it not, to him it is sin "
Happy
the bible defintion of sin is the transgression of the law.
1John 3v4
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law
"Every one that practiseth sin, practiseth lawlessness; for sin is lawlessness, this is the correct rendering. The definition of sin as "transgression of the law" is misleading and incorrect. Before there ever was a law, sin was in the world (Romans 5:12, etc.); how then can sin be the transgression of the law?
Sin was in the world 2500 years before the Law. Already existing sin caused the Law’s
Hi james g,
What is "Lawlessness"?
Romans 8:2 tells us that we have been "set free from the law of sin and death".
Gal 3:12 says the Law is not of faith
Rom 3:19,20 says whatever the law says it says to those under it.
Rom 5:13 sin is not imputed when there is no law
Rom 7:4 & 6 believers are dead to the law and delivered from the law
Rom10:4 Christ is the end of the law.
These scriptures show that we cannot be judged as transgressors of the law of sin and death, which would suggest that "transgression of the law" and "lawlessness" mean the same.
