B-A-C
Loyal
- Joined
- Dec 18, 2008
- Messages
- 12,067
You know Jesus called himself the "son of man" almost 80 times in the New Testament. He called himself that more than any other title.
(Matt 8:20, Matt 9:6; Matt 11:19; Matt 12:8; Matt 12:32; Matt 12:40; Matt 13:37; etc...)
Of course most of us believe in the Trinity and that Jesus is God, there are other threads debating the Trinity and whether Jesus is God or not. I'd rather not debate that in this thread.
The question is ... "Since Jesus is God and the Son of God, why did he usually refer to himself as the 'son of man'"?
(Again, I would ask if you have a problem with Jesus being God, or the son of God, please put it in another thread)
I have some thoughts on this.
Rom 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned--
Rom 5:13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
A type of him who was to come. What does that mean? Adam was Human. Jesus was Human (God also, but fully human in some ways)
One thing they both had in common was no earthly father. Adam was the first human, and Jesus...(Matt 1:18; Matt 1:20; Luke 1:35)
Rom 5:15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many.
Rom 5:16 The gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from one transgression resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift arose from many transgressions resulting in justification.
Rom 5:17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.
Rom 5:18 So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.
Rom 5:19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.
Sin came into the world by one human man.
A human man had to conquer sin.
Jesus was tempted just as we all are. (Matt 4:1; Mark 1:13; Luke 4:2; Heb 2:18; Heb 4:15) He had to be a man to be tempted, because God can not be tempted. (James 1:13)
Again, I believe Jesus is God/the son of God, I am not disputing this at all, the point I'm trying to make, is that he had to be human in order to know what temptation felt like. In order to reverse the choice Adam had made. He had to be human in order to die (you can't kill God)
I find it interesting that this verse that talks about the bridge between God and Man call Jesus "the man".
(1Tim 2:5)
Now you can't have a sinful God. But it may be possible to have a sinless man... Adam was sinless until he ate the fruit. Jesus was sinless. The only sinless man was Jesus, so he is the only one who could possibly be our mediator.
(yes, he was the sacrifice, the propitiation, the grace, all of those things also)
I am reminded of a Jeremy Camp song.. "would you take the place of this man, would you take the nails from his hand?"
Would a God have felt the pain Jesus felt? Could a Holy God have taken on the sin that Jesus did for us? Could a man that was never tempted sympathize with us? (Heb 4:15)...
... I wonder.
(Matt 8:20, Matt 9:6; Matt 11:19; Matt 12:8; Matt 12:32; Matt 12:40; Matt 13:37; etc...)
Of course most of us believe in the Trinity and that Jesus is God, there are other threads debating the Trinity and whether Jesus is God or not. I'd rather not debate that in this thread.
The question is ... "Since Jesus is God and the Son of God, why did he usually refer to himself as the 'son of man'"?
(Again, I would ask if you have a problem with Jesus being God, or the son of God, please put it in another thread)
I have some thoughts on this.
Rom 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned--
Rom 5:13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
A type of him who was to come. What does that mean? Adam was Human. Jesus was Human (God also, but fully human in some ways)
One thing they both had in common was no earthly father. Adam was the first human, and Jesus...(Matt 1:18; Matt 1:20; Luke 1:35)
Rom 5:15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many.
Rom 5:16 The gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from one transgression resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift arose from many transgressions resulting in justification.
Rom 5:17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.
Rom 5:18 So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.
Rom 5:19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.
Sin came into the world by one human man.
A human man had to conquer sin.
Jesus was tempted just as we all are. (Matt 4:1; Mark 1:13; Luke 4:2; Heb 2:18; Heb 4:15) He had to be a man to be tempted, because God can not be tempted. (James 1:13)
Again, I believe Jesus is God/the son of God, I am not disputing this at all, the point I'm trying to make, is that he had to be human in order to know what temptation felt like. In order to reverse the choice Adam had made. He had to be human in order to die (you can't kill God)
I find it interesting that this verse that talks about the bridge between God and Man call Jesus "the man".
(1Tim 2:5)
Now you can't have a sinful God. But it may be possible to have a sinless man... Adam was sinless until he ate the fruit. Jesus was sinless. The only sinless man was Jesus, so he is the only one who could possibly be our mediator.
(yes, he was the sacrifice, the propitiation, the grace, all of those things also)
I am reminded of a Jeremy Camp song.. "would you take the place of this man, would you take the nails from his hand?"
Would a God have felt the pain Jesus felt? Could a Holy God have taken on the sin that Jesus did for us? Could a man that was never tempted sympathize with us? (Heb 4:15)...
... I wonder.
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