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"Put Asunder"/"Depart"-Jesus vsPaul

foc

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Jan 2, 2008
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"Put Asunder"/"Depart", Jesus versus Paul ?
By WmTipton


Assertions/Conclusions of this Article
Here we will show that not only can one put asunder a marriage (that its possible), but Paul even gives instruction to do just that in certain cases.

Supporting Evidence
1.0
There is an errant teaching out there that claims that when Jesus said 'let not man put asunder' regarding marriage, that He 'meant' man CANNOT put asunder.
L: “When God joins two together, they are now ONE. What GOD joins, man CANNOT separate”
What we will show briefly in this article that there IS an occurance in scripture where it is shown absolutely that man can indeed 'put asunder' what God has joined together.
See 'put asunder' in each of these passages?
(Mat 19:6) Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder(G5563).

(Mar 10:9) What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder(G5563).
(Bearing in mind that, in the context these are in, Jesus and the pharisees are discussing putting away of a wife there in BOTH of those passages. The context of 'put asunder' is putting away of a marriage/wife, nothing less.)

The word is (G5563)chorizo and it only appears a few times in scripture.
G5563
χωρίζω
chōrizō
Thayer Definition:
1) to separate, divide, part, put asunder, to separate one’s self from, to depart
1a) to leave a husband or wife
1a) of divorce
1b) to depart, go away
That word 'put asunder' is the EXACT same word for "depart" in 1 cor 7:11
(1Co 7:11) But and if she depart(G5563), let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.
...in other words, Paul has just said this woman has done the exact thing that some claim that Jesus said men CANNOT do....'put asunder'.

Notice Paul makes no claim that she 'cannot' put asunder (depart), but clearly presents that IF she DOES do so, then this is the situation....she is to remain "agamos" (literally "UNmarried").
*IF* putting asunder were IMPOSSIBLE for man to do...then why doesnt Paul REstate (*IF* that were Jesus actual meaning) this fact ?
WHY does he simply say *IF* she puts asunder then ...... ?
*IF* no man can put asunder, then Paul makes absolutely no sense here whatsoever. He should have simply stated that it was impossible to do so.
The word in question pretty much just means to "place room between", "depart" or to "separate"...its not some magical phrase that Jesus used to make a marriage bond unbreakable...

What I find striking is that Paul could have used a number of other choices in demonstrating that this woman had left her husband...but chose the one word that was used in rendering Jesus' words about putting asunder.
Was it coincedence or intentional? Was Paul literally reaching out and using the one word that would make it clear that putting asunder IS indeed possible?
We wont know until that day, for sure...but we do know now that regardless of what some say, that Paul has shown that man CAN 'put asunder'....that is factual.
Certainly a call to reconcile is made to the believers...but this doesnt negate what is clearly presented in Gods word....man CAN indeed put asunder (separate) by Pauls own words.


2.0
Now that its been established that man can indeed ‘put asunder’ (chorizo) a marriage, we move on to something even more astounding. Clear instruction for the believer to actually allow the unbelieving spouse to ‘put asunder’ the marriage.

Heres a very remarkable passage that blows L’s statement above, that man CANNOT separate right out of the water. And not only that, it is our very own Paul giving INSTRUCTION for this believer to let it be so.
1Co 7:15 KJV But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
Remember “chorizo”G5563 our word from above ? Can you guess what greek word ‘depart’ there is rendered from ?
You got it...the very same ‘chorizo’ (put asunder from Jesus’ statement ‘let not man put asunder”) is right there in Paul own instruction to let the unbeliever do.

So we not only see absolute proof that man CAN put asunder a marriage, but we now have Paul even telling the believer to let the unbeliever do so !
This hardly sounds like a ‘cannot’ situation to me.

Now, of course this is not our Lords desire for marriage that it would ever have to be ended, but clearly He had enought forsight to show Paul to let the believer do EXACTLY what He Himself had told man not to do.

Why?
Because Jesus knows that no matter what we do as believers, there will always be unbelieving spouses who will not honor the covenant of marriage.


3.0

As we can see here in this passage, the believing wife who has departed (chorizo) her believing husband is considered 'agamos'.....'unmarried'.

(1Co 7:10 KJV) And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart(chorizo)from her husband:
(1Co 7:11 KJV) But and if she depart(chorizo), let her remain unmarried(agamos), or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.


Logically carrying this 'agamos' over to this passage where this unbeliever also has departed the marriage its quite easy to conclude that this person would also be deemed as 'agamos' (unmarried)
(1Co 7:15 KJV) But if the unbelieving depart(chorizo), , let him depart(chorizo), . A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.

in the former case where both are believers there is commandment to remain UNmarried or reconcile.
In the latter case tho, where one is unequally yoked, Paul clearly states that he is speaking, not the Lord, in this matter.
To these Paul gives concession not given to those who are equally yoked with another believer.
"BUT to the REST"....to these who are unequally yoked, Paul says quite plainly that they are not in bondage to that union where it has been put asunder.

4.0
Another point of interest is in verse 7:11 where it says 'let her remain unmarried or reconcile to her husband" the actual greek means 'let her remain unmarried or to the man let her be being conciliated"
It is often pushed that the use of 'her husband' there means that she is still married to the man, but that is not proven from the actual Greek at all. The greek word for 'man' is also used for 'husband'.
Paul used 'agamos' to describe this woman for a reason.
 
"Put Asunder"/"Depart", Jesus versus Paul ?


Jesus v Paul....absolutely not. This is nonesense if we desire to follow Gods plan.

Jesus v Paul......Dear Lord...no contest, no debate, if we desire to follow the 'ideal'

The frst mention of 'wife' in scripture is found in Gen 2:24 "and a man shall cleave unto his wife, and they shall be one flesh"

Mtt 19:5 Jesus speaking "a man shall leave his father and mother and shall cleave to his wife: and they shall be one flesh........"

Mark 10:7 Paul teaching the church. "for this cause shall a man leave his father and mother and cleave to his wife.........."

1 Corinthians 6:15/16 "Know ye not that your bodies are are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ and make them the members of a harlot? God forbid. What? know ye not that he which is joined to a harlot is one body/ for two saith He shall be one flesh"

Ephesians 5:31 "For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh"

joined = proskellao - stick like glue - cemented to - Mtt 19:5 Mk 10:7
 
I agree that Paul was not contradicting Christs word concerning 'put asunder'.
That was probably made clear in the article itself.

There are doctrines out there that say because Jesus said 'let not man put asunder'(Chorizo) that He means 'man CANNOT put asunder'.

If that were the case then Paul would have to be lying to tell the believer to allow the unbeliever to do just that...'chorizo'... to 'put asunder'.
If Paul DOES allow a man to put asunder and we know that Paul does not speak against the Lords teachings, then it is not possible that Jesus meant 'cannot' put asunder in the gospels.

I thought Id post the article and see where the thread goes.
Im always interested in new imput :-)
 
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Reading the chapter.......1 Corinthians ch 7 I see 20 commands concerning Marriage

It is benificial in exegesis to take the whole..... This then has bearing on the detail.

1 Let every man have his own wife. v2

2 Let every woman have her own husband.

3 Let the husband meet the sexual needs of the wife. v 3 - 4

4 Let the wife meet the sexual needs of her husband v3 - 4

5 Defraud not each other in sexual matters - pay your conjugal vows v 5

6 Come together again after you have consented to live continent for a period, so as to pray and fast v 5

7 Let both men and women marry...if they have battles with self control. v 9

8 Let not the wife depart from her husband. v 10

9 If she does depart let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband. v 11

10 Let not the husband divorce his wife. v 11

11 Let not the Christian man divorce the non Christian. If she is happy to live with him: reasons v 12-16

12 Let not the Christian wife divorce her husband. If he is happy to live with her. v 13-16

13 If the unbeliever departs and refuses to live with the Christian, let him depart. Do not force continuance of the marriage The Christian is freed from the marriage bonds in such cases. v 15

14 Let every man or woman remain as he or she was before becoming a Christian. (v17-24) That is do not use Christianity as an excuse to break up your own home and perhaps another, seeking a new companion.

15 If you are bound to a wife......seek not to be loosed (v27) That is do not get a divorce, regardless of the past. Stay in the same calling and state in which you were saved. v 17-24

16 If you are loosed from a wife....seek not another wife (v27). If you do marry, however you have not sinned. v 28

17 You that have wifes live as though you do not have them (v 29-31) That is live free from anxiety
v 32-35

18 Let the father who has a daughter of marrying age be free to give her to marriage. It is no sin for him to do so or fot the virgin to matty
v 36-38

19 The wife is bound by Divine law to be married as long as the husband lives (v39) Marriage is for the lifetime of the husband or the wife.

20 Christians must remarry only Christians when companions die v 39
 
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Hi Steve :)
I guess Im just not seeing any connection between my OP and your posts.

Concerning the OP itself, what are your thoughts about what is presented in that post ?

:)
 
The biblical emphasis within Christian marriage, is to stay married. I agree with the words of the Wedding Ceremony

"of Divine Origin.....sanctioned and approved by the Holy Spirit....dignified and forever hallowed by the personal presence of our Lord at Cana in Galilee.....speaks of the union of Christ and His Church......." etc.

1 Cor. 7:10 "And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband" (v11) "But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband, and let not the husband put away his wife"

"But and if she depart"

This means to get a divorce, hence Paul would not have restricted her to remain single, not remarrying unless it was to her former husband v11

Among Jews a woman had just as much right to put away a husband as the husband had to put away a wife. A woman could say to the Elders that her parents or brethren had deceived her, betrothing her to the husband when she was young, stating that "I now reveal to you that I will not have him as my husband".

Some parted with mutual consent and this was considered legal as was also their remarriage to others. A divorces were considered the comp[lete dissolving of the marriage bonds, and in consequence of this, they were free to remarry. Any woman or man who got a divorce on grounds other than those allowed, was to remain single or remarry the former companion Divorce upon scriptural grounds meant that a person was free to remarry, providing it was to another Christian. v 15, 27-28.

v 15 "But of the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or sister is nor under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace"

Here we have another legal and scriptural reason for divorce and remarriage. If the unbeliever refuses to love with a wife or husband because of Christianity and if he or she is determined to leave on this account, the Christian is not under further marriage bonds, and is not held responsible or punished by requirement to remain single the rest of his or her life, because of the rebellion of another. The Christian is to submit to the breaking of the marriage covenant under such circumstance
 
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