PERFECTIONISM FROM SIN

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Does scripture teach perfectionism from sin?

Heb 10:14 For by one offering he (Jesus) has perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
What has Jesus perfected in those that are sanctified forever from?
Heb 7:19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.

What did the bringing in of a better hope make perfect?

Heb 10:1 For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year “continually” make the comers thereunto perfect.

What was it that the sacrifices could not make perfect as pertaining to the comers?

If the sacrifices under the old covenant could have taken away sin, should the worshipers have a consciousness of sin?

And if the new covenant believers know that they will sin again, just like the old covenant believers, then they both have a consciousness of sin. Therefore, just as the blood of bulls and goats could not take away sins, the blood of Jesus would not have taken away sins. But we know that Jesus took away sins, so the believers should now not have a consciousness of sin.

Heb 10:2 (GW) If these sacrifices (under the law) could have made the worshipers perfect, the sacrifices would have stopped long ago. Those who worship would have been cleansed once and for all. Their consciences would have been free from sin.

If a person has a rememberance of sin, they have a consciousness of sin.

Heb 10:3 But in those sacrifices (under the law) there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.

It seems the perfectionism from sin is something that GOD did when He placed upon Jesus “all” the sins of the world forever. Jesus did not die for the actions of men, but He died for the label known as sin which came through the law. It is only by the law that the knowledge of sin is. (Romans 3:20)

Rom 4:15 Because the law works wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

The disobedience of the law is what angered GOD, so when He crucified the law and its ordinances, His wrath subsided. Not just for believers, but for unbelievers also at this time, because no man can be justified by the law. Only by the law is the knowledge of sin. This is true for GOD and man.

Rom 5:20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:

Gal 3:19 (GW) What, then, is the purpose of the laws given to Moses? They were added to identify what wrongdoing is. Moses' laws did this until the descendant to whom the promise was given came. It was put into effect through angels, using a mediator.

What is the difference between the covenant of Law, and the covenant of Grace where sin is concerned? Answer: Sin is not imputed where there is no law; GOD is not imputing sin, nor does He have a consciousness of man’s sins; past, present or future.

Rom 5:13 For until the law sin “was” in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

G1677 (impute)
el-log-eh'-o
From G1722 and G3056 (in the sense of account); to reckon in, that is, attribute: - impute, put on account.

Because we know that GOD is not “reckoning” believers to sin, nor is He charging it to their Heavenly account, why do believer reckon it unto themselves?

Rom 6:10 For in that he (Jesus) died, he died unto sin once: but in that he lives, he lives unto God.

Rom 6:11 Likewise reckon you also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Every believer should reckon themselves to be inactive where sin is concerned. Sin is no longer the label for their actions, but unfruitful works or dead works is. This is what will cause a believer to become “lukewarm” and “tares” in the body of Christ; being in danger what Matthews 13:41 states:

Mat 13:41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his (Jesus’) kingdom (the Body of Christ) all things that offend, and them which do iniquity (Lawlessness);
 
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Does scripture teach perfectionism from sin?

Heb 10:14 For by one offering he (Jesus) has perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
What has Jesus perfected in those that are sanctified forever from?
Heb 7:19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.

What did the bringing in of a better hope make perfect?

Heb 10:1 For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year “continually” make the comers thereunto perfect.

What was it that the sacrifices could not make perfect as pertaining to the comers?

If the sacrifices under the old covenant could have taken away sin, should the worshipers have a consciousness of sin?

And if the new covenant believers know that they will sin again, just like the old covenant believers, then they both have a consciousness of sin. Therefore, just as the blood of bulls and goats could not take away sins, the blood of Jesus would not have taken away sins. But we know that Jesus took away sins, so the believers should now not have a consciousness of sin.

Heb 10:2 (GW) If these sacrifices (under the law) could have made the worshipers perfect, the sacrifices would have stopped long ago. Those who worship would have been cleansed once and for all. Their consciences would have been free from sin.

If a person has a rememberance of sin, they have a consciousness of sin.

Heb 10:3 But in those sacrifices (under the law) there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.

It seems the perfectionism from sin is something that GOD did when He placed upon Jesus “all” the sins of the world forever. Jesus did not die for the actions of men, but He died for the label known as sin which came through the law. It is only by the law that the knowledge of sin is. (Romans 3:20)

Rom 4:15 Because the law works wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

The disobedience of the law is what angered GOD, so when He crucified the law and its ordinances, His wrath subsided. Not just for believers, but for unbelievers also at this time, because no man can be justified by the law. Only by the law is the knowledge of sin. This is true for GOD and man.

Rom 5:20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:

Gal 3:19 (GW) What, then, is the purpose of the laws given to Moses? They were added to identify what wrongdoing is. Moses' laws did this until the descendant to whom the promise was given came. It was put into effect through angels, using a mediator.

What is the difference between the covenant of Law, and the covenant of Grace where sin is concerned? Answer: Sin is not imputed where there is no law; GOD is not imputing sin, nor does He have a consciousness of man’s sins; past, present or future.

Rom 5:13 For until the law sin “was” in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

G1677 (impute)
el-log-eh'-o
From G1722 and G3056 (in the sense of account); to reckon in, that is, attribute: - impute, put on account.

Because we know that GOD is not “reckoning” believers to sin, nor is He charging it to their Heavenly account, why do believer reckon it unto themselves?

Rom 6:10 For in that he (Jesus) died, he died unto sin once: but in that he lives, he lives unto God.

Rom 6:11 Likewise reckon you also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Every believer should reckon themselves to be inactive where sin is concerned. Sin is no longer the label for their actions, but unfruitful works or dead works is. This is what will cause a believer to become “lukewarm” and “tares” in the body of Christ; being in danger what Matthews 13:41 states:

Mat 13:41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his (Jesus’) kingdom (the Body of Christ) all things that offend, and them which do iniquity (Lawlessness);
@regibassman57
in the proper context yes.

Philippians 4:13 King James Version (KJV)
13 I can do all things through Christ which strengtheneth me.

Genesis 6:9 King James Version (KJV)
9 These are the generations of Noah: Noah was a just man and perfect in his generations, and Noah walked with God.

Hebrews 6 King James Version (KJV)
1 Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God,

2 Of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment.

3 And this will we do, if God permit.



Also Enoch may have also been perfect and also Shem or Melchizedek

My theory is they may have already been counted as perfect thru the future foreshadowing of the passover lamb. I do not think I am wrong but even if i am theyre are individuals in the Old Testament counted as perfect simply based off their heart being turned to God "perhaps"

This is a tricky subject because scripture also says

Romans 3:23
“For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;”

Ecclesiastes 7:20 King James Version (KJV)
20 For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not.

Maybe I should try contextualize it all to gain further understanding.
 

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