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Perfect word?

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On the question if the Bible is infallible. We as Christians believe it to be just that. However, the question was posed to me...
"If the Bible is infallible, because it is inspired by God, and those men writing it, AND translating it are guided by God, then how do you explain the missing/added texts from the King James version to the NIV?"

I remember talking briefly of the "lost" verses in the two translations, but never really got an answer if you will. He doesn't accept the answer, "the core meaning is still intact" because then that means that the "longer" version has unnecessary, or meaningless text, and therefor God did NOT guide the men writing and translating the word. You see me dilemma here? Any help and opinions are welcome. TY.
God bless,
Nigh

BTW:These are not my thoughts or questions, but a friends, and I could not answer him properly.
 
Member
The reasoning for the differnces between translations is that the original languages of the Bible do not translate well into English, there are un-translatable words and even some of those whose meanings are Lost, so the translation teams try to get the meaning and context to translate as well as can be into a new language, and alot can be lost for there is no perfect translating methods.

Hope this helps and gets this discussion ball rolling.

Peace be with you,
John.
 

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