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Muslim Questions on Christianity (Pt 2)
(Part I can be found here)
Q9: In Dt 18:17-18; Dt 33:1-2, and Dt 34:10-11, was Mohammed prophesied here, as some Muslims claim?
A: Deuteronomy 18:15-18 says God will raise up a prophet, that they will hear, like Moses from their midst, among their brethren. Was Jesus a prophet? Did many Jews hear Jesus? Was Jesus among the Jews? Was Jesus a Jew? Muslims should have no problem agreeing that this verse fits Jesus more than Mohammed. Here are a few more points.
A Muslim would have to say not only that Justin was wrong, but all New Testament manuscripts recorded Peter’s saying incorrectly.
In addition, translations to other languages were made very early; the dates above or not the dates of the first translations, but only the dates of the earliest manuscripts that survive today. These are valuable because they are an independent chain of transmission, that people can use as a crosscheck on the Greek manuscripts. The chain of transmission of these manuscripts, from Africa to Asia, all agree that Peter said this refers to Jesus.
Q10: In 1 Sam 1:2; Gen 16:2; 25:1; 29:23-24;28-29, 2 Sam 20:3, etc., why did God permit polygamy (many wives) for Abraham, Jacob, and David and others?
A: Four points to consider in the answer
A: This is a question for Muslims as well as Christians, because the Qur’an also speaks of David as a true prophet. However, while most Muslims think David was sinless, the Bible shows that David sinned greatly. David was a man after God’s own heart, not because he never sinned, but because, having sinned, he repented.
Q12: In 1 Sam 25:4-35, why was David [allegedly] running a protection racket?
A: No, but the questioner would be right in not wanting to follow a religion whose prophet and leaders profited from protection rackets. Four points to consider in the answer.
Q13: In 1 Ki 11:1-3, why did Solomon have 700 wives and 300 concubines, which contradicted God’s command in Dt 17:17?
A: Deuteronomy 17:17 says the king should not have many wives, and David and Solomon sinned by doing so. Marrying wives was a common way of strengthening alliances, but it was still wrong to disobey God. 1 Kings 11:1-4 says that Solomon sinned in marrying these foreign wives, and turned his heart away from God.
Hard Sayings of the Bible p.229 has an interesting application of this. While Solomon would have set a higher standard as an example, he probably began to see himself as beyond the need for this restriction from God. When a Christian leader today regards himself as beyond God’s restrictions for common Christians, that leader is in very serious spiritual trouble. In the Qur’an no Muslim man is permitted to have more than four wives, with the only exception being for Mohammed, who apparently had about 15 wives after Khadija, plus two concubines.
Q14: In 1 Ki 11:1-3, does this approve of polygamy?
A: No, because Solomon sinned in having so many wives. In general, the Old Testament permitted polygamy, but did not encourage it as Genesis 1 says, "the two", not "the many" shall become one flesh. In the New Testament, polygamy was not outlawed, but no elder or church leader (episcopos) could have more than one wife, as 1 Timothy 3:1 indicates.
Q15: In 2 Ki 2:23-25, why did Elisha, a great prophet who was taken directly to heaven, have a bear kill 40 children because he didn’t like being called ‘baldy’?
A: Three points to consider in the answer.
A: No, even Muslims cannot really see this way, except for some of the Ghulat sects of Islam, which think Mohammed actually is God. Psalm 45:6 says, "Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever." (NIV) In addition to Mohammed never claiming to be God, Mohammed never had a throne or a scepter either. See When Critics Ask p.238 and When Cultists Ask p.64 for a complementary answer.
Q17: In Isa 21:7, is the rider on "donkeys" Jesus, and the rider on "camels" Mohammed?
A: No. Three points to consider in the answer.
Q18: In Hab 3:3, could this be a prediction of Mohammed?
A: Only Ghulat Muslims should think so, since this verse speaks of "God", not "Mohammed". Some Ghulat Muslim sects do believe Mohammed is God, though that is heresy to Sunni Muslim ears. However, if any Sunni Muslims themselves really took this question seriously, they would have to believe Mohammed is God too, since "God came from Teman".
Other reasons this cannot refer to Mohammed, is that "His praise" does not refer to Mohammed, since the praise is for God." Mount Paran is where the Israelites camped, and far from Mecca. When Cultists Ask p.89 gives essentially the same answer. See the next question and When Critics Ask p.315 for more info.
Finally, some Muslims apparently are concerned to find more continuity between Mohammed and the Bible, just as there is continuity between Jesus and the promised Messiah of the Old Testament. However, some Muslims look for it in the unlikeliest of places, Habakkuk 3:3, in trying to find something to predict Mohammed.
Q19: In the Gospels, did Jesus really die on the cross, or did God miraculously and undetectably substitute someone else as the Muslim Qur’an claims?
A: The different views of Christians and Muslims are a fundamental difference between their two religions.
Christians say it was really Jesus because all Christian and well as non-Christian accounts say it was Jesus. The Allah of Muslims is different from the God of the Bible, and Allah has fooled and deceived all his people into thinking Allah substituted another.
Muslims say Allah is the same as the God of the Bible. Allah’s switching Jesus would not be detectable by anyone, and thus there would be no historical evidence of the switch.
Both can agree that at some point in time, Allah, the god of Islam, totally fooled and deliberately deceived all of Allah’s own people.
Q20: Since God does not have a physical body, how can Jesus be the Son of God?
A: Christians do NOT believe Jesus was the Son of God in a crude physical or sexual sense. Rather this term is an expression of deep meaning of how Jesus is different from every created being. Shi’ite Muslims have a slightly similar concept. When they say ‘Ali is the finger of God, they do not believe that God has ten fingers like people do. Rather, this is an expression with a deeper meaning for them.
(Part I can be found here)
Q9: In Dt 18:17-18; Dt 33:1-2, and Dt 34:10-11, was Mohammed prophesied here, as some Muslims claim?
A: Deuteronomy 18:15-18 says God will raise up a prophet, that they will hear, like Moses from their midst, among their brethren. Was Jesus a prophet? Did many Jews hear Jesus? Was Jesus among the Jews? Was Jesus a Jew? Muslims should have no problem agreeing that this verse fits Jesus more than Mohammed. Here are a few more points.
a. Deuteronomy 33:1-2 says "the Lord", and Muslims do not call Mohammed their Lord. (‘Alawite Muslims and other Ghulat groups consider Mohammed God, but they are exceptions.)
b. Deuteronomy 34:10 that "since then there has not arisen in Israel a prophet like Moses." This epitaph was written, probably by Joshua, long before Jesus came.
c. Deuteronomy 34:10 mentions "face to face", and Mohammed never said he got his words directly from Allah, but through angels (Sura 2:97). Jesus communicated directly with God the Father according to John 1:18 and other passages.
d. The next verse, 34:11, says no other prophet did those awesome miracles like Moses did. Mohammed, according to what was written in the Qur’an (Sura 17:90-93) never performed miracles like these, except for reciting the Qur’an. (The Qur’an contradicts what later Muslim traditions in the Hadiths say.)
e. In the Qur’an itself, Sura 29:27 says the prophethood came through Isaac and Jacob. In Yusuf Ali’s translation of the Qur’an, he says, "And We gave (Abraham) Isaac and Jacob, and ordained Among his progeny Prophethood and Revelation,…" While the parentheses around Abraham is in Yusuf Ali’s translation, the entire word, "Abraham" is not in the Arabic, and Yusuf Ali felt the need to add "Abraham" to what Muslims view as God’s word.
f. Finally, Jesus’ apostle Peter said this was fulfilled in Jesus in Acts 3:22-26. The apostle Peter would be in a great position to know.
The early church fathers mentioned this verse as referring to Jesus. Some of them wereb. Deuteronomy 34:10 that "since then there has not arisen in Israel a prophet like Moses." This epitaph was written, probably by Joshua, long before Jesus came.
c. Deuteronomy 34:10 mentions "face to face", and Mohammed never said he got his words directly from Allah, but through angels (Sura 2:97). Jesus communicated directly with God the Father according to John 1:18 and other passages.
d. The next verse, 34:11, says no other prophet did those awesome miracles like Moses did. Mohammed, according to what was written in the Qur’an (Sura 17:90-93) never performed miracles like these, except for reciting the Qur’an. (The Qur’an contradicts what later Muslim traditions in the Hadiths say.)
e. In the Qur’an itself, Sura 29:27 says the prophethood came through Isaac and Jacob. In Yusuf Ali’s translation of the Qur’an, he says, "And We gave (Abraham) Isaac and Jacob, and ordained Among his progeny Prophethood and Revelation,…" While the parentheses around Abraham is in Yusuf Ali’s translation, the entire word, "Abraham" is not in the Arabic, and Yusuf Ali felt the need to add "Abraham" to what Muslims view as God’s word.
f. Finally, Jesus’ apostle Peter said this was fulfilled in Jesus in Acts 3:22-26. The apostle Peter would be in a great position to know.
1. Either, Jesus made a great mistake allowing a deceiver like Peter to mislead people for almost 2,000 years who were trying to follow God, and God did not lift a finger to tell people the truth.
2. Or, Jesus knew what He was doing when he selected Peter, and God did not correct something that needed no correction.
3. Or else, Peter did not say that, and the book of Acts was corrupted prior to the first extra-Biblical mention we have of this referring to Christ, which was about 138 A.D.
2. Or, Jesus knew what He was doing when he selected Peter, and God did not correct something that needed no correction.
3. Or else, Peter did not say that, and the book of Acts was corrupted prior to the first extra-Biblical mention we have of this referring to Christ, which was about 138 A.D.
Justin Martyr 138-165 A.D.
Irenaeus 182-188 A.D.
Tertullian 200-240 A.D.
Origen 225-254 A.D.
Chrysostom 407 A.D.
Justin Martyr was born around 114 A.D., though some think 110 A.D. His first Apology was written between 138 A.D. and his death in 165 A.D. Obviously, he had to have read of this prophecy referring to Christ before he wrote it down.Irenaeus 182-188 A.D.
Tertullian 200-240 A.D.
Origen 225-254 A.D.
Chrysostom 407 A.D.
A Muslim would have to say not only that Justin was wrong, but all New Testament manuscripts recorded Peter’s saying incorrectly.
In addition, translations to other languages were made very early; the dates above or not the dates of the first translations, but only the dates of the earliest manuscripts that survive today. These are valuable because they are an independent chain of transmission, that people can use as a crosscheck on the Greek manuscripts. The chain of transmission of these manuscripts, from Africa to Asia, all agree that Peter said this refers to Jesus.
Q10: In 1 Sam 1:2; Gen 16:2; 25:1; 29:23-24;28-29, 2 Sam 20:3, etc., why did God permit polygamy (many wives) for Abraham, Jacob, and David and others?
A: Four points to consider in the answer
1. Polygamy was never God’s perfect will, as implied when He made Adam and Eve. He said the two (not many) shall become one flesh.
2. God permitted many things, such as divorce (Matthew 5:31-32; Mark 10:2-12), being that their hearts were hard. Some things, such as polygamy and rash vows, God left for people to figure out were not good.
3. Even in Old Testament times, polygamy was not necessarily the norm. There were only fifteen examples in the Old Testament until Solomon’s time, and four or five after that time.
4. Ever since the time of Paul, and today, godly elders and deacons are not to have more than one wife (1 Tim 3:2,12; Titus 1:6).
Q11: In 1 Sam 13:14, how could David be a man after God’s own heart, since David later committed some very serious sins?2. God permitted many things, such as divorce (Matthew 5:31-32; Mark 10:2-12), being that their hearts were hard. Some things, such as polygamy and rash vows, God left for people to figure out were not good.
3. Even in Old Testament times, polygamy was not necessarily the norm. There were only fifteen examples in the Old Testament until Solomon’s time, and four or five after that time.
4. Ever since the time of Paul, and today, godly elders and deacons are not to have more than one wife (1 Tim 3:2,12; Titus 1:6).
A: This is a question for Muslims as well as Christians, because the Qur’an also speaks of David as a true prophet. However, while most Muslims think David was sinless, the Bible shows that David sinned greatly. David was a man after God’s own heart, not because he never sinned, but because, having sinned, he repented.
Q12: In 1 Sam 25:4-35, why was David [allegedly] running a protection racket?
A: No, but the questioner would be right in not wanting to follow a religion whose prophet and leaders profited from protection rackets. Four points to consider in the answer.
1. David did not have a protection racket, since David, the one doing protecting, was giving wealth away to those he was protecting, as David did in 1 Samuel 30:26-31.
2. David was not asking Nabal for 1) a regular payment, or 2) gold, silver, or any other valuables.
David was merely requesting whatever food Nabal could spare. Nabal never complained of any request for money of valuables. Rather, 1 Samuel 25:11 shows that Nabal understood this request as only for bread, water, and meat.
3. David later acknowledged, with regret, that he would have done evil to have killed Nabal and his men, according to 1 Samuel 25:13,33-34, 39.
4. David was not angry with Nabal because he broke any kind of agreement for protection. Rather, David was angry with Nabal’’ for his insulting answer in 1 Samuel 12:10-11.
In contrast to this, Muslims from the time of Mohammed onward have had a special tax on just Christians and Jews called the Jizya. According to the Bukhari Hadith vol.2 page 7, in the glossary Jizya is a "Head-tax imposed by Islam on the people of the Scriptures and other people who have a releaved book (Non-Muslims) when they are under Muslim rule." Muslims even say that Christians and Jews should be grateful for the Jizya, because without it, they would have no right to dwell in Muslim lands without being killed.2. David was not asking Nabal for 1) a regular payment, or 2) gold, silver, or any other valuables.
David was merely requesting whatever food Nabal could spare. Nabal never complained of any request for money of valuables. Rather, 1 Samuel 25:11 shows that Nabal understood this request as only for bread, water, and meat.
3. David later acknowledged, with regret, that he would have done evil to have killed Nabal and his men, according to 1 Samuel 25:13,33-34, 39.
4. David was not angry with Nabal because he broke any kind of agreement for protection. Rather, David was angry with Nabal’’ for his insulting answer in 1 Samuel 12:10-11.
Q13: In 1 Ki 11:1-3, why did Solomon have 700 wives and 300 concubines, which contradicted God’s command in Dt 17:17?
A: Deuteronomy 17:17 says the king should not have many wives, and David and Solomon sinned by doing so. Marrying wives was a common way of strengthening alliances, but it was still wrong to disobey God. 1 Kings 11:1-4 says that Solomon sinned in marrying these foreign wives, and turned his heart away from God.
Hard Sayings of the Bible p.229 has an interesting application of this. While Solomon would have set a higher standard as an example, he probably began to see himself as beyond the need for this restriction from God. When a Christian leader today regards himself as beyond God’s restrictions for common Christians, that leader is in very serious spiritual trouble. In the Qur’an no Muslim man is permitted to have more than four wives, with the only exception being for Mohammed, who apparently had about 15 wives after Khadija, plus two concubines.
Q14: In 1 Ki 11:1-3, does this approve of polygamy?
A: No, because Solomon sinned in having so many wives. In general, the Old Testament permitted polygamy, but did not encourage it as Genesis 1 says, "the two", not "the many" shall become one flesh. In the New Testament, polygamy was not outlawed, but no elder or church leader (episcopos) could have more than one wife, as 1 Timothy 3:1 indicates.
Q15: In 2 Ki 2:23-25, why did Elisha, a great prophet who was taken directly to heaven, have a bear kill 40 children because he didn’t like being called ‘baldy’?
A: Three points to consider in the answer.
1. Elisha does not bear the responsibility for the bears, they were sent by God.
2. The Hebrew word for "youth" here can mean people up to around 20 years old. Joseph was a "youth" in Genesis 37:2, as were the soldiers in Abram’s army in Genesis 14:25.
3. Youth gangs could be violent back then just as today.
Q16: Does Ps 45:3-5 refer to Mohammed, as some Muslims claim?2. The Hebrew word for "youth" here can mean people up to around 20 years old. Joseph was a "youth" in Genesis 37:2, as were the soldiers in Abram’s army in Genesis 14:25.
3. Youth gangs could be violent back then just as today.
A: No, even Muslims cannot really see this way, except for some of the Ghulat sects of Islam, which think Mohammed actually is God. Psalm 45:6 says, "Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever." (NIV) In addition to Mohammed never claiming to be God, Mohammed never had a throne or a scepter either. See When Critics Ask p.238 and When Cultists Ask p.64 for a complementary answer.
Q17: In Isa 21:7, is the rider on "donkeys" Jesus, and the rider on "camels" Mohammed?
A: No. Three points to consider in the answer.
1. These were messengers at that time coming to report that Babylon has fallen. The only special significance is that perhaps the camel riders might be scouts, donkey riders might be civilians, and charioteers might be military men.
2. The evil Midianites rode on camels too, but that is just as irrelevant as talking about Mohammed here.
3. Finally, there were camel riders (plural), so even if one was Mohammed, this would mean that another camel rider would be coming after him.
There is no point in trying to "strain a gnat and swallow a camel" by trying to use this verse to show consistency with Islam when there is so much in the Bible (Fatherhood of God, Trinity, saved by grace, Holy Spirit, etc.) that runs counter to Islam.2. The evil Midianites rode on camels too, but that is just as irrelevant as talking about Mohammed here.
3. Finally, there were camel riders (plural), so even if one was Mohammed, this would mean that another camel rider would be coming after him.
Q18: In Hab 3:3, could this be a prediction of Mohammed?
A: Only Ghulat Muslims should think so, since this verse speaks of "God", not "Mohammed". Some Ghulat Muslim sects do believe Mohammed is God, though that is heresy to Sunni Muslim ears. However, if any Sunni Muslims themselves really took this question seriously, they would have to believe Mohammed is God too, since "God came from Teman".
Other reasons this cannot refer to Mohammed, is that "His praise" does not refer to Mohammed, since the praise is for God." Mount Paran is where the Israelites camped, and far from Mecca. When Cultists Ask p.89 gives essentially the same answer. See the next question and When Critics Ask p.315 for more info.
Finally, some Muslims apparently are concerned to find more continuity between Mohammed and the Bible, just as there is continuity between Jesus and the promised Messiah of the Old Testament. However, some Muslims look for it in the unlikeliest of places, Habakkuk 3:3, in trying to find something to predict Mohammed.
Q19: In the Gospels, did Jesus really die on the cross, or did God miraculously and undetectably substitute someone else as the Muslim Qur’an claims?
A: The different views of Christians and Muslims are a fundamental difference between their two religions.
Christians say it was really Jesus because all Christian and well as non-Christian accounts say it was Jesus. The Allah of Muslims is different from the God of the Bible, and Allah has fooled and deceived all his people into thinking Allah substituted another.
Muslims say Allah is the same as the God of the Bible. Allah’s switching Jesus would not be detectable by anyone, and thus there would be no historical evidence of the switch.
Both can agree that at some point in time, Allah, the god of Islam, totally fooled and deliberately deceived all of Allah’s own people.
Q20: Since God does not have a physical body, how can Jesus be the Son of God?
A: Christians do NOT believe Jesus was the Son of God in a crude physical or sexual sense. Rather this term is an expression of deep meaning of how Jesus is different from every created being. Shi’ite Muslims have a slightly similar concept. When they say ‘Ali is the finger of God, they do not believe that God has ten fingers like people do. Rather, this is an expression with a deeper meaning for them.