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In the Gospels, why did the translators place the name "Hell" on two separate greek words, Hades and Gehenna, when they are two different dynamics?

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I've only been here for a week, who is/are considered the best at explaining Bible questions on this site?

I'd like to read their insightful analysis of this post.
 
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At least the YLT left it alone - the only place Paul referred to Hades:

1 Corinthians 15:54-55
Young's Literal Translation


54 and when this corruptible may have put on incorruption, and this mortal may have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the word that hath been written, `The Death was swallowed up -- to victory;

55 where, O Death, thy sting? where, O Hades, thy victory?'

The screaming question is, why do most translations cover up Hades with the word ' Death'?
They put the word "HELL" everywhere else in the the NT.
 
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Hello @Michel BoryAlis,

Sheol, Hades, Gehenna and Tartaroo are the words translated hell in the Scriptures. Gehenna is the word used by the Lord Jesus Christ, and is the only word of the four so translated which refers to the fires of judgment at the end of the age. Tartaroo is used once and translated hell in reference to the spirits (fallen angels) in prison in 2 Peter 2:4.

The middle English word Hell was chosen by the translators because it means 'to hide away', and refers to the grave, or' the place of the dead'. All four words so translated refer to the place of the dead, even the fires of Gehenna, for only the dead are destroyed there.

The word hell has been abused and misused, and influenced by Greek philosophy to mean something quite different to that ever intended.

No, hell is 'the place of the dead', or 'the grave', for the soul that sinneth it shall surely DIE, and not suffer an eternity of eternal conscious punishment, which some suggest.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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My last thread on 'Why Apostle Paul did not mention "HELL" was deleted for being 'Universalist'.
They used hell to describe Tartarus as well which is not the same as Hades. They should have named them what they are so we knew because " hell" is just a general term .
 
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In the Gospels, why did the translators place the name "Hell" on two separate greek words, Hades and Gehenna, when they are two different dynamics?
Hello @Michael BoryAlis,

I have wondered that myself. However, I believe it is because Hell (meaning to hide away) refers to 'the place of the dead', and though as you say the usage of Gehenna in Scripture is different to that of Hades.., yet the one common factor in both,, is that they refer to 'the place of the dead', though one be the grave and the other a place of total destruction by means of fire following judgment.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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They used hell to describe Tartarus as well which is not the same as Hades. They should have named them what they are so we knew because " hell" is just a general term .
Hello @DieAmartyr,

Yes, Tartaroo is different again I agree. Yet, the fact that this all covering word is used, serves one purpose, in that it makes us question and consider what we might otherwise not, and for that I praise God for His wisdom, that he knows our feeble frame so well., being our Creator.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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Hello @DieAmartyr,

Yes, Tartaroo is different again I agree. Yet, the fact that this all covering word is used, serves one purpose, in that it makes us question and consider what we might otherwise not, and for that I praise God for His wisdom, that he knows our feeble frame so well., being our Creator.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
What do you mean? But God didn't translate these words- men did. They obviously have different locations and different longevity but I think I know what you mean. Like I could call heaven " paradise" ( eternal) and Abraham's bosom " paradise" ( temporary)and a 5 star resort " paradise"( on earth) and our brains would perceive them the same in nature regardless of where they were. In Greek Mythology isn't Hades a Demi-God?(Nephilim)
 

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