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Jesus's Cry on the Cross

Discussion in 'Bible Chat' started by oswinium, Sep 16, 2011.

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  1. oswinium

    oswinium New Member

    Aug 19, 2011
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    I was just wondering why Jesus cried out, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?"
    I don't understand in what way the Father did this? :S
    Please shed some light on this matter :)
  2. agua

    agua New Member

    Dec 5, 2010
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    Here are a few different ideas from Albert Barnes' notes on the bible. I tend to agree with #4.

  3. james g

    james g New Member

    Mar 1, 2011
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    Psalm 22 is both a cry of anguish and a song of praise from a suffering man.

    It is a picture of our LORD's crucifixion, written a thousand years before the event.

    The Psalm opens with one of the seven words from the Cross:
    "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" (Psalm 22:1).

    In Matthew 27:46 we read that "about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?."

    In the consideration of these words, the question arises as to just why GOD did forsake His Son in that awful hour on the cross. The cry goes on: "why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring? O my God, I cry in the daytime, but thou hearest not; and in the night season, and am not silent" (Psalm 22:1-2).

    The answer to this question may be found in the words of verses 3 to 6:
    "But thou art holy, O thou that inhabitest the praises of Israel. Our fathers trusted in thee: they trusted, and thou didst deliver them. They cried unto thee, and were delivered: they trusted in thee, and were not confounded. But I am a worm, and no man; a reproach of men, and despised of the people" (Psalm 22:3-6).

    The holiness of GOD forbade Him to hear the cry of the Sufferer on the Cross. Though that Sufferer was His own Son, and though the Son was doing the will of GOD in His suffering, yet the holy GOD could not look upon His own LAMB because that LAMB was there as a sin offering, and upon Him was laid the crushing burden of the sin of the world. The holy GOD cannot look upon sin with any degree of allowance:

    Thou art of purer eyes than to behold evil, and canst not look on iniquity" (Habakkuk 1:13)and on the Cross the Son of GOD was made sin for us, though He knew no sin, that "we might be made the righteousness of God in him" (II Corinthians 5:21).
  4. RJ

    RJ Loyal Member

    Jun 1, 2009
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    There is much about God that we dont fully understand and are not meant to; one of these was, at this time, Jesus was fully Man and at the same time full God.

    It was Jesus the man that had to suffer, a "man" though without sin himself, became sin just prior to death, in order to fullfil God's purpose in him. At that very second that Jesus cried out, he was fully man.

    God is the opposite of and void of sin and, at that very second, Jesus was totally alone, had to go it alone. The man ( fully man), without sin(fully God), was absent of God as he took on the horrible burden of the world's sin as fully man. God himself can not take on and be sin. It must have been a pain that we can never understand, to take on the worlds sin and be absent of the Father at the same moment.

    Jesus, on top of everything else, was so overwhelmed at the reality of being separated from the Father that he cried out in despair but, like Jesus was to latter say: "fear not for I have overcome the world".

    The fully man that was, at the same time, fully God became fully man in order to end up fully God!
    #4 RJ, Sep 16, 2011
    Last edited: Sep 16, 2011
  5. macca

    macca New Member

    Feb 28, 2008
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    It seems to me that because Jesus took the sin of the world upon Himself, Father God could not have sin in His presence, so left His Son for a short time, until the sacrifice was finished and sin was dealt with.

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