Jesus said, "I have been given all authority in heaven and on earth.
Go, then, to all peoples everywhere and make them my disciples:
baptize them in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, and
teach them to obey everything I have commanded you.
And I will be with you always, to the end of the age."

Matt. 28: 18-20

QUESTION

Is the doctrine of the "Second Coming" consistent with Jesus Christ's claim of absolute authority in heaven and on earth and his promised presence with us to the end of the age?

(Or does "the Second Coming" make sense at all about Christ who is supposed to be more powerfully present today than ever before independent of our understanding?)

Originally Posted by EphremHagos

Jesus said, "I have been given all authority in heaven and on earth.
Go, then, to all peoples everywhere and make them my disciples:
baptize them in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, and
teach them to obey everything I have commanded you.
And I will be with you always, to the end of the age."

Matt. 28: 18-20

QUESTION

Is the doctrine of the "Second Coming" consistent with Jesus Christ's claim of absolute authority in heaven and on earth and his promised presence with us to the end of the age?

(Or does "the Second Coming" make sense at all about Christ who is supposed to be more powerfully present today than ever before independent of our understanding?)

Jesus did not claim absolute authority, for at Matthew 28:18, Jesus said that "All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth.” Since, he was ‘ given all authority’, the One giving him the authority is the One who has absolute authority. Otherwise, Jesus would not have been given “all authority” if he is God with absolute authority already in his possession.

King Nebuchadnezzar took note that there is one who has absolute authority. Following his seven years of insanity, he said: “ I blessed the Most High himself, and the One living to time indefinite I praised and glorified, because his rulership is a rulership to time indefinite and his kingdom is for generation after generation. And all the inhabitants of the earth are being considered as merely nothing, and he is doing according to his own will among the army of the heavens and the inhabitants of the earth. And there exists no one that can check his hand or that can say to him, ‘What have you been doing?’ “(Dan 4:34, 35)

Who is the “Most High himself” ? Psalms 83:18 says: “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the most high over all the earth.”(King James Bible) He alone is the One who has absolute authority. Psalms 103:19 says: “Jehovah himself has firmly established his throne in the very heavens; And over everything his own kingship has held domination.”

[QUOTE=Jaareshiah;207862]Jesus did not claim absolute authority, for at Matthew 28:18, Jesus said that "All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth.” Since, he was ‘ given all authority’, the One giving him the authority is the One who has absolute authority. Otherwise, Jesus would not have been given “all authority” if he is God with absolute authority already in his possession.

To begin with what is obvious, the form of verb used, a.k.a., the present perfect tense, "have been given", suggests an action that has been completed even if altruistically expressed. The truth is knowable in the "real proof" ever present in Christ's Spirit-active, perfect and diacritical death on the cross, which plainly demonstrates Jesus' synchronized twin-rights of giving up his life of his own free will and taking it back just as predicted with the necessary qualification. (John 10: 17-18)

The cross of Christ is, indeed, his winnowing shovel with which "he threshes out all the grain and gather the wheat into his barn" (Luke 3:17). Among the very few who, by breakthrough, anticipated to find eternal life in Christ's death on the cross are James, John and their mother (Matt. 20: 20-28), Mary of Bethany (Ibid, 26: 1-13), and Nicodemus and Joseph (John 19: 30-42). Others followed in due course. It is never too late!

That is the mark of "the Messiah, the Son of the living God" which "not even death will ever be able to overcome" (Matt. 16:18), and by which in his own words, "'When I am lifted up from the earth, I will draw everyone to me.' In saying this he indicated the kind of death he was going to suffer." (John 12: 32-33)

The Good News is that this is subject neither to your outright acceptance nor rejection but only to Christ's confirmation at your asking! God bless you.

John

The Deity of Jesus Christ

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. ² He was in the beginning with God. ³ All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. ⁴ In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men. ⁵ The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it.

The Word is the authority, beyond question.

Originally Posted by David777

John


The Deity of Jesus Christ

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. ² He was in the beginning with God. ³ All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. ⁴ In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men. ⁵ The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it.

The Word is the authority, beyond question.

Not all Bibles read as the King James Bible, whereby it says that "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God". Why ? Simply put, there is missing the definite article, "the", or ho in Greek, that would identify "the Word" as "the God".

Within the confines of John 1:1, 2, the definite article "the" (ho in Greek) is used before "Word" every time, making it "the Word". However, the apostle John makes a change with regard to the word "god", in which the first and third times he uses it (Greek theon), the definite article "the" (ho in Greek) is attached to it, and thus saying literally "the God". In the second use of "god", John makes a change to "theos" without the definite article from "theon" that is used with the definite article in the first and third occurrences.

Hence, John was identifying the first and third usage of theon as "the God", whereas in the second usage without the definite article, he was identifying "the Word", Jesus as "a god" or having godlike qualities. It need be remembered that Koine Greek had no indefinite article such as "a" that we use in English.

But there is a language that Koine Greek was translated into not long after the death of the apostles, and that is Sahidic Coptic, that was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Jesus' earthly ministry, that has an indefinite article.

Regarding the earliest Coptic translations of the Bible, The Anchor Bible Dictionary says: “Since the [Septuagint] and the [Christian Greek Scriptures] were being translated into Coptic during the 3d century C.E., the Coptic version is based on [Greek manuscripts] which are significantly older than the vast majority of extant witnesses.”

Scholar Thomas O. Lambdin, in his work Introduction to Sahidic Coptic, says: “The use of the Coptic articles, both definite and indefinite, corresponds closely to the use of the articles in English.”

Hence, the Coptic translation supplies interesting evidence as to how John 1:1 would have been understood back then, dating from before the fourth century, which was when the Trinity became official doctrine. What do we find? The Sahidic Coptic translation uses an indefinite article with the word “god” in the final part of John 1:1.

Thus, when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: “And the Word was a god.” Evidently, those ancient translators realized that John’s words recorded at John 1:1 did not mean that Jesus was to be identified as Almighty God. The Word was a god, not Almighty God.

JOHN 1:1. SAHIDIC COPTIC TEXT; P. CHESTER BEATTY-813; WITH INTERLINEAR TRANSLATION

In the beginning existed the Word
and the Word existed with
the God and a god was
the Word.

Originally Posted by Jaareshiah

Not all Bibles read as the King James Bible, whereby it says that "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God". Why ? Simply put, there is missing the definite article, "the", or ho in Greek, that would identify "the Word" as "the God".

Within the confines of John 1:1, 2, the definite article "the" (ho in Greek) is used before "Word" every time, making it "the Word". However, the apostle John makes a change with regard to the word "god", in which the first and third times he uses it (Greek theon), the definite article "the" (ho in Greek) is attached to it, and thus saying literally "the God". In the second use of "god", John makes a change to "theos" without the definite article from "theon" that is used with the definite article in the first and third occurrences.

Hence, John was identifying the first and third usage of theon as "the God", whereas in the second usage without the definite article, he was identifying "the Word", Jesus as "a god" or having godlike qualities. It need be remembered that Koine Greek had no indefinite article such as "a" that we use in English.

But there is a language that Koine Greek was translated into not long after the death of the apostles, and that is Sahidic Coptic, that was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Jesus' earthly ministry, that has an indefinite article.

Regarding the earliest Coptic translations of the Bible, The Anchor Bible Dictionary says: “Since the [Septuagint] and the [Christian Greek Scriptures] were being translated into Coptic during the 3d century C.E., the Coptic version is based on [Greek manuscripts] which are significantly older than the vast majority of extant witnesses.”

Scholar Thomas O. Lambdin, in his work Introduction to Sahidic Coptic, says: “The use of the Coptic articles, both definite and indefinite, corresponds closely to the use of the articles in English.”

Hence, the Coptic translation supplies interesting evidence as to how John 1:1 would have been understood back then, dating from before the fourth century, which was when the Trinity became official doctrine. What do we find? The Sahidic Coptic translation uses an indefinite article with the word “god” in the final part of John 1:1.

Thus, when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: “And the Word was a god.” Evidently, those ancient translators realized that John’s words recorded at John 1:1 did not mean that Jesus was to be identified as Almighty God. The Word was a god, not Almighty God.

JOHN 1:1. SAHIDIC COPTIC TEXT; P. CHESTER BEATTY-813; WITH INTERLINEAR TRANSLATION

In the beginning existed the Word
and the Word existed with
the God and a god was
the Word.

Well lets check the Old Testament to see who precisely is this
messiah.


Isaiah 9

⁶ For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us;

And the government will rest on His shoulders;

And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,

Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.

⁷ There will be no end to the increase of His government or of peace,

On the throne of David and over his kingdom,

To establish it and to uphold it with justice and righteousness

From then on and forevermore.

The zeal of the Lord of hosts will accomplish this.


The son is referred to as the Eternal Father.

These passages have external support namely
the Dead Sea scrolls. In the Great Isaiah scroll
the above passages are identical.

So should you think that the Catholic Church has altered
the Bible you may have to think again.

Further, these passages are also found in the Jewish
Bible. Once again no alteration has occurred.

Jesus the messiah is the one and only, true eternal
God. Glory to the name above all names and I mean
all names.

Amen Im just glad He's promised to come back for us in John 14:1Letnot your heart be troubled : ye believein God, believealso in me.2In my Father's house aremany mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I goto prepare a place for you.3And if I goand prepare a place for you, I will comeagain, and receiveyou unto myself; that where I am , there ye may be also. AMEN HE IS COMING BACK I BELIEVE SOON.

Originally Posted by Jaareshiah

Jesus did not claim absolute authority, for at Matthew 28:18, Jesus said that "All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth.” Since, he was ‘ given all authority’, the One giving him the authority is the One who has absolute authority. Otherwise, Jesus would not have been given “all authority” if he is God with absolute authority already in his possession.

King Nebuchadnezzar took note that there is one who has absolute authority. Following his seven years of insanity, he said: “ I blessed the Most High himself, and the One living to time indefinite I praised and glorified, because his rulership is a rulership to time indefinite and his kingdom is for generation after generation. And all the inhabitants of the earth are being considered as merely nothing, and he is doing according to his own will among the army of the heavens and the inhabitants of the earth. And there exists no one that can check his hand or that can say to him, ‘What have you been doing?’ “(Dan 4:34, 35)

Who is the “Most High himself” ? Psalms 83:18 says: “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the most high over all the earth.”(King James Bible) He alone is the One who has absolute authority. Psalms 103:19 says: “Jehovah himself has firmly established his throne in the very heavens; And over everything his own kingship has held domination.”

LOL Well there is a study in semantics.

The FATHER had absoulute authority and HE gave it all to JESUS. Come on now. What is excluded from 'all'?

All authority and absolute authority are exactly the same thing.

Originally Posted by EphremHagos

Jesus said, "I have been given all authority in heaven and on earth.
Go, then, to all peoples everywhere and make them my disciples:
baptize them in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, and
teach them to obey everything I have commanded you.
And I will be with you always, to the end of the age."

Matt. 28: 18-20

QUESTION

Is the doctrine of the "Second Coming" consistent with Jesus Christ's claim of absolute authority in heaven and on earth and his promised presence with us to the end of the age?

(Or does "the Second Coming" make sense at all about Christ who is supposed to be more powerfully present today than ever before independent of our understanding?)

Is there a scripture that uses the term "second coming"? Christ is with me always and will never leave nor forsake me. I don't wait for anything else except to put off this fleshy body and see Jesus as He is. He's already came to me and has been growing His Kingdom in me for over thirty years now. Next step as His Son is to deliver up this Kingdom to Him and then be "All in All", just as we all do sooner or later. I hope it's sooner hehe :)
In His Love,
Whitestone

The deity of the self-revealing Christ, as "source of life", is exclusively based on his verifiably absolute authority but definitely not on any version of the Scriptures.

The latter are not, to begin with, even included in the terms and seal of the "new covenant" of the Spirit based on his death on the cross, a.k.a. "the tree of life".

Originally Posted by Jaareshiah

Not all Bibles read as the King James Bible, whereby it says that "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God". Why ? Simply put, there is missing the definite article, "the", or ho in Greek, that would identify "the Word" as "the God".

Within the confines of John 1:1, 2, the definite article "the" (ho in Greek) is used before "Word" every time, making it "the Word". However, the apostle John makes a change with regard to the word "god", in which the first and third times he uses it (Greek theon), the definite article "the" (ho in Greek) is attached to it, and thus saying literally "the God". In the second use of "god", John makes a change to "theos" without the definite article from "theon" that is used with the definite article in the first and third occurrences.

Hence, John was identifying the first and third usage of theon as "the God", whereas in the second usage without the definite article, he was identifying "the Word", Jesus as "a god" or having godlike qualities. It need be remembered that Koine Greek had no indefinite article such as "a" that we use in English.

But there is a language that Koine Greek was translated into not long after the death of the apostles, and that is Sahidic Coptic, that was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Jesus' earthly ministry, that has an indefinite article.

Regarding the earliest Coptic translations of the Bible, The Anchor Bible Dictionary says: “Since the [Septuagint] and the [Christian Greek Scriptures] were being translated into Coptic during the 3d century C.E., the Coptic version is based on [Greek manuscripts] which are significantly older than the vast majority of extant witnesses.”

Scholar Thomas O. Lambdin, in his work Introduction to Sahidic Coptic, says: “The use of the Coptic articles, both definite and indefinite, corresponds closely to the use of the articles in English.”

Hence, the Coptic translation supplies interesting evidence as to how John 1:1 would have been understood back then, dating from before the fourth century, which was when the Trinity became official doctrine. What do we find? The Sahidic Coptic translation uses an indefinite article with the word “god” in the final part of John 1:1.

Thus, when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: “And the Word was a god.” Evidently, those ancient translators realized that John’s words recorded at John 1:1 did not mean that Jesus was to be identified as Almighty God. The Word was a god, not Almighty God.

JOHN 1:1. SAHIDIC COPTIC TEXT; P. CHESTER BEATTY-813; WITH INTERLINEAR TRANSLATION

In the beginning existed the Word
and the Word existed with
the God and a god was
the Word.